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| Certification Vendor: | IIBA |
|---|---|
| Exam Name: | IIBA Certificate in Cybersecurity Analysis |
| Exam Number: | IIBA-CCA |
| Available Languages: | English |
| Certificate Validity Period: | No expiration |
| Exam Duration: | 120 minutes |
| Exam Price: | $450 USD |
| Real Exam Qty: | 100 |
| Passing Score: | 70% |
| Exam Format: | Multiple Choice |
| Related Certifications: | IIBA Certification |
| Sample Questions: | IIBA IIBA-CCA Sample Questions |
| Exam Way: | Online proctored or Test Center |
| Pre Condition: | No specific prerequisites, but experience in business analysis or cybersecurity is recommended. |
| Official Syllabus URL: | https://www.iiba.org/career-resources/a-business-analysis-professionals-foundation-for-success/certificate-in-cybersecurity-analysis/ |
>> IIBA IIBA-CCA Exam Tutorials <<
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NEW QUESTION # 62
Certificates that provide SSL/TLS encryption capability:
Answer: B
Explanation:
SSL/TLS relies on digital certificates to support encrypted communications and to help users trust that they are connecting to the correct server. A TLS certificate is typically an X.509 certificate that binds a public key to an identity, such as a domain name, and is digitally signed by a trusted issuer. In most public internet use cases, these certificates are issued by Certificate Authorities that browsers and operating systems already trust through pre-installed root certificates. Because of that trust chain, organizations commonly obtain certificates by purchasing or otherwise obtaining them from certificate authorities, which is why option B is correct.
During the TLS handshake, the server presents its certificate to the client. The client validates the certificate's signature chain, validity period, and that the certificate matches the domain being accessed. Once validated, TLS establishes session keys used to encrypt data in transit and protect it from eavesdropping and tampering. Certificates themselves are not "similar to unencrypted data," and they are not specific to thumb-drive storage; they are used to secure network communications. Certificates also do not primarily provide "authorization" to access data. Authorization is typically enforced by application and access control mechanisms after authentication. Certificates support authentication of endpoints and enable secure key exchange, which are prerequisites for secure transport encryption and trustworthy connections.
NEW QUESTION # 63
What is the purpose of Digital Rights Management DRM?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Digital Rights Management is a set of technical mechanisms used to enforce the permitted uses of digital content after it has been delivered to a user or device. Its primary purpose is to control how copyrighted works are accessed and used, including restricting copying, printing, screen capture, forwarding, offline use, device limits, and redistribution. DRM systems commonly apply encryption to content and then rely on a licensing and policy enforcement component that checks whether a user or device has the right to open the content and under what conditions. These conditions can include time-based access (expiry), geographic limitations, subscription status, concurrent use limits, or restrictions on modification and export.
This aligns precisely with option B because DRM is fundamentally about usage control of copyrighted digital works, such as music, movies, e-books, software, and protected media streams. In cybersecurity documentation, DRM is often discussed alongside content protection, anti-piracy measures, and license compliance. It differs from general access control and audit logging: access control determines who may enter a system or open a resource, while auditing records actions for accountability. DRM extends beyond simple access by enforcing what a legitimate user can do with the content once accessed.
Option A describes audit logging, option C describes general authorization and data access control, and option D is closer to broad information rights management goals but is less precise than the standard definition focused on controlling use and distribution of copyrighted works.
NEW QUESTION # 64
What things must be identified to define an attack vector?
Answer: D
Explanation:
An attack vector is the route or method used to compromise an environment, and it is typically described as the way a threat actor exploits a vulnerability to gain unauthorized access, execute code, steal data, or disrupt services. To define an attack vector correctly, cybersecurity documents emphasize that you must identify both parts of that relationship: who or what is attacking and what weakness is being exploited. The "attacker" component represents the threat source or threat actor, including their capability and intent (for example, cybercriminals using phishing, insiders abusing access, or automated botnets scanning the internet). The "vulnerability" component is the specific weakness or exposure that enables success, such as a missing patch, weak authentication, misconfiguration, excessive permissions, insecure coding flaw, or lack of user awareness.
Without identifying the attacker, you cannot properly characterize the likely techniques, scale, and motivation driving the vector. Without identifying the vulnerability, you cannot define the practical entry point and control gaps that make the vector feasible. Together, attacker plus vulnerability allows defenders to map realistic scenarios, prioritize controls, and select mitigations that reduce likelihood and impact. Those mitigations may include patching, configuration hardening, strong authentication, least privilege, network segmentation, user training, and monitoring. The other options list technology elements that can be involved in an incident, but they do not capture the essential definition of an attack vector as an exploitation path driven by a threat actor leveraging a weakness
NEW QUESTION # 65
What risk factors should the analyst consider when assessing the Overall Likelihood of a threat?
Answer: D
Explanation:
In NIST-style risk assessment, overall likelihood is not a single guess; it is derived by considering two related likelihood components. First is the likelihood that a threat event will be initiated. This reflects how probable it is that a threat actor or source will attempt the attack or that a threat event will occur, considering factors such as adversary capability, intent, targeting, opportunity, and environmental conditions. Second is the likelihood that an initiated event will succeed, meaning the attempt results in the adverse outcome. This depends heavily on the organization's existing protections and conditions, including control strength, system exposure, vulnerabilities, misconfigurations, detection and response capability, and user behavior.
Option A matches this structure: analysts evaluate both attack initiation likelihood and initiated attack success likelihood to reach an overall view of likelihood. A high initiation likelihood with low success likelihood might occur when an organization is frequently targeted but has strong defenses. Conversely, low initiation likelihood with high success likelihood might apply to niche systems that are rarely targeted but poorly protected.
The other options are incomplete or misplaced. Risk impact is a separate dimension from likelihood, and mitigation strategy is an output of risk treatment, not an input to likelihood. Site traffic and commerce volume can influence exposure but do not define likelihood by themselves. Past experience and trends are useful evidence, but they support estimating the two likelihood components rather than replacing them.
NEW QUESTION # 66
How should categorization information be used in business impact analysis?
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 67
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