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NEW QUESTION # 75
A company has security requirements for Amazon Aurora MySQL databases regarding encryption, deletion protection, public access, and audit logging. The company needs continuous monitoring and real-time visibility into compliance status.
Which solution will meet these requirements?
Answer: D
Explanation:
AWS Config is the AWS service designed to continuously evaluate resource configurations against defined rules. According to the AWS Certified Security - Specialty Study Guide, AWS Config managed rules exist specifically to check database encryption, public accessibility, deletion protection, and log exports for Amazon RDS and Aurora.
AWS Config provides a real-time compliance timeline and displays the compliance state of each resource against each rule at any point in time. This granular visibility is required to assess ongoing compliance with security policies.
Audit Manager generates reports but does not provide continuous compliance monitoring. Security Hub aggregates findings but does not track configuration drift. EventBridge and Lambda introduce unnecessary complexity.
Referenced AWS Specialty Documents:
AWS Certified Security - Specialty Official Study Guide
AWS Config Managed Rules for RDS
AWS Continuous Compliance Monitoring
NEW QUESTION # 76
A company operates a web application that runs on Amazon EC2 instances. The application listens on port 80 and port 443. The company uses an Application Load Balancer (ALB) with AWS WAF to terminate SSL and to forward traffic to the application instances only on port 80.
The ALB is in public subnets that are associated with a network ACL named NACL1. The application instances are in dedicated private subnets that are associated with a network ACL named NACL2. An Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance that uses port 5432 is in a dedicated private subnet that is associated with a network ACL named NACL3. All the network ACLs currently allow all inbound and outbound traffic.
Which set of network ACL changes will increase the security of the application while ensuring functionality?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed 100to 150 words of Explanation From AWS Certified Security - Specialty topics:
Network ACLs are stateless subnet-level controls, so both request traffic and return traffic must be explicitly allowed. The PostgreSQL database subnet should allow inbound TCP 5432 only from the application subnet CIDR blocks, not from the internet or unrelated subnets. Because return traffic from the database uses ephemeral destination ports on the client side, the outbound rule from the database subnet must allow TCP
1024-65536 back to the application instance subnets. Option A is invalid because network ACL rules use CIDR blocks, not other NACL names as sources or destinations. Options C and D modify only the application subnet NACL and fail to correctly restrict and allow database subnet return traffic.
NEW QUESTION # 77
A company's security engineer receives an abuse notification from AWS. The notification indicates that someone is hosting malware from the company's AWS account. After investigation, the security engineer finds a new Amazon S3 bucket that an IAM user created without authorization. Which combination of steps should the security engineer take to MINIMIZE the consequences of this compromise? (Select THREE.)
Answer: B,C,F
Explanation:
AWS incident response best practices emphasize rapid containment, credential revocation, and threat detection to minimize the blast radius of a compromise. According to the AWS Certified Security - Specialty Official Study Guide, when unauthorized resources such as an Amazon S3 bucket hosting malware are discovered, immediate action must be taken to stop further misuse of the account and to prevent recurrence.
Rotating or deleting all AWS access keys (Option D) is a critical containment step. If an IAM user has been compromised, any long-term credentials associated with that user must be revoked immediately to prevent continued unauthorized access. AWS guidance explicitly lists access key rotation or deletion as a first-response action for suspected credential compromise.
Deleting unrecognized or unauthorized resources (Option F) directly removes the malicious infrastructure that is being abused. In this case, deleting the unauthorized S3 bucket immediately stops malware distribution and reduces reputational and compliance impact.
Turning on Amazon GuardDuty (Option B) enables continuous threat detection by analyzing CloudTrail events, VPC Flow Logs, and DNS logs. GuardDuty can identify additional malicious activity, compromised credentials, or persistence mechanisms that the attacker may have established. AWS documentation recommends enabling GuardDuty during or immediately after an incident to detect ongoing or future threats.
NEW QUESTION # 78
A company uses several AWS CloudFormation stacks to handle the deployment of a suite of applications. The leader of the company's application development team notices that the stack deployments fail with permission errors when some team members try to deploy the stacks.
However, other team members can deploy the stacks successfully.
The team members access the account by assuming a role that has a specific set of permissions.
All team members have permissions to perform operations on the stacks.
Which combination of steps will ensure consistent deployment of the stacks MOST securely?
(Select THREE.)
Answer: A,B,F
Explanation:
AWS CloudFormation supports the use of a service role, which allows CloudFormation to assume a dedicated IAM role to create and manage resources on behalf of users. According to the AWS Certified Security - Specialty Study Guide, using a service role is the most secure and consistent way to ensure predictable stack deployments when users have varying permission sets.
By creating a service role with cloudformation.amazonaws.com as the trusted service principal (Option B), CloudFormation--not individual users--assumes responsibility for resource creation.
Updating each stack to explicitly use this service role (Option E) ensures that all deployments use the same permission set, eliminating inconsistencies.
Granting the team members permission to pass the service role via iam:PassRole (Option F) is required so that CloudFormation can assume the role during stack operations. This approach adheres to the principle of least privilege and prevents users from gaining direct access to elevated permissions.
NEW QUESTION # 79
A company has two AWS accounts: Account A and Account B. Each account has a VPC. An application that runs in the VPC in Account A needs to write to an Amazon S3 bucket in Account B. The application in Account A already has permission to write to the S3 bucket in Account B. The application and the S3 bucket are in the same AWS Region. The company cannot send network traffic over the public internet.
Which solution will meet these requirements?
Answer: C
Explanation:
To keep S3 accessoff the public internet, the standard AWS approach is to use anAmazon S3 gateway VPC endpoint(AWS PrivateLink for S3 is not used; S3 uses gateway endpoints). A gateway endpoint adds routes in the VPC route tables so traffic destined for S3 stays on the AWS backbone network rather than traversing an internet gateway, NAT gateway, or public IP paths. This satisfies the "cannot send traffic over the public internet" requirement while allowing the application in Account A to reach S3 in the same Region.
Cross-account bucket access is controlled byIAM and the S3 bucket policy, not by networking between the two accounts' VPCs. The bucket resides in S3 (a regional service), not inside Account B's VPC, so connecting VPC-to-VPC (peering, transit gateway, VPN) does not inherently provide private access to S3.
Those options would add complexity and still typically require internet/NAT unless S3 endpoints are used.
With the gateway endpoint in Account A, the application can privately reach S3, and because permissions are already granted to write to the bucket in Account B, the write operations will succeed without public internet routing.
NEW QUESTION # 80
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