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AAPC CPC Exam Overview:

Certification Vendor:AAPC (American Academy of Professional Coders)
Exam Name:Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam
Exam Number:CPC
Related Certifications:CPCO
CRC
CPC-P
CPMA
Certificate Validity Period:3 years
Exam Price:$425 (1 attempt), $499 (2 attempts)
Exam Format:Multiple-choice, Scenario-based, Open-book
Exam Duration:240 minutes
Passing Score:70%
Real Exam Qty:100
Available Languages:English
Recommended Training:AAPC CPC Training Courses
Exam Registration:AAPC Official Registration
Sample Questions:AAPC CPC Sample Questions
Exam Way:Online proctored or in-person at authorized testing centers
Pre Condition:No mandatory prerequisites; recommended knowledge of medical terminology, anatomy, coding systems; AAPC membership required to register
Official Syllabus URL:https://www.aapc.com/certifications/cpc

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AAPC CPC Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • The Business of Medicine: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and covers foundational knowledge regarding the healthcare system, reimbursement models, insurance payers, HIPAA compliance, and the ethical responsibilities coders hold within clinical and billing environments. It establishes the context in which coding decisions directly affect healthcare operations and financial outcomes.
Topic 2
  • Musculoskeletal System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and focuses on coding procedures involving bones, joints, muscles, and tendons. It covers surgeries, reductions, arthroscopies, and fracture treatments, emphasizing accurate mapping of procedures to anatomical areas.
Topic 3
  • Hemic & Lymphatic Systems, Mediastinum, Diaphragm: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and includes procedures related to the spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow, as well as surgical interventions in the mediastinum and diaphragm. Coders must differentiate procedures by region and system accurately.
Topic 4
  • Cardiovascular System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and addresses services related to the heart, arteries, and veins. It involves the coding of diagnostic and therapeutic procedures, including catheterizations, bypasses, and repairs.:
Topic 5
  • Accurate ICD-10-CM Coding: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and focuses on the precise assignment of diagnosis codes using the ICD-10-CM system. The goal is to ensure accurate representation of patient conditions, proper sequencing, and a clear linkage between diagnoses and services.
Topic 6
  • Female Reproductive System and Maternity Care & Delivery: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and evaluates coding accuracy for gynecological and obstetric procedures. It includes deliveries, antepartum care, cesarean sections, and surgical procedures involving female reproductive anatomy.
Topic 7
  • Introduction to CPT®, HCPCS Level II, and Modifiers: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and introduces candidates to CPT® coding for procedures, HCPCS Level II for supplies and services, and the correct use of modifiers. It helps learners distinguish between different code sets and understand their place in medical billing.
Topic 8
  • Review of Anatomy: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers a high-level understanding of human anatomy. It includes organs, systems, directional terminology, and anatomical locations, enabling coders to link procedures and diagnoses to the correct bodily structures with accuracy and consistency.
Topic 9
  • Evaluation & Management Services: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers office visits, hospital care, consultations, and other E
  • M services. It tests the understanding of time-based coding, medical decision-making, and history
  • exam components per current CMS guidelines.
Topic 10
  • Digestive System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and evaluates the coding of surgeries and procedures involving the oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, intestines, liver, pancreas, and related organs. Understanding endoscopic procedures is particularly critical here.
Topic 11
  • Radiology: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and focuses on diagnostic imaging procedures including X-rays, CT scans, MRIs, ultrasounds, and nuclear medicine. It emphasizes proper selection of codes based on anatomical site and modality used.
Topic 12
  • Applying the ICD-10-CM Guidelines: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers how to apply official ICD-10-CM guidelines to real-world coding scenarios. It emphasizes the hierarchy of instructional notes, general and chapter-specific rules, and how to make judgment calls within compliant coding frameworks.
Topic 13
  • Urinary System and Male Genital System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and assesses understanding of procedures on kidneys, bladder, ureters, prostate, and male reproductive organs. Proper use of CPT codes for surgical and diagnostic interventions is tested.
Topic 14
  • Endocrine System and Nervous System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and assesses the ability to assign codes for surgeries involving glands, the brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves. Procedures like resections and electrical stimulation are part of the evaluated content.
Topic 15
  • Overview of ICD-10-CM: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and introduces the structure, format, and usage of the ICD-10-CM coding system. It reviews the purpose of ICD-10-CM in diagnosis reporting and prepares candidates to interpret chapters, code ranges, and conventions embedded in the system.
Topic 16
  • Special Senses (Ocular and Auditory): This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers the coding of procedures related to the eyes and ears. Topics include surgeries on the cornea, retina, and middle
  • inner ear, as well as related diagnostic procedures.

AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Sample Questions (Q80-Q85):

NEW QUESTION # 80
A 56-year-old female patient with a history of degenerative disc disease at levels T2-T3 and T4-T5 underwent a surgical repair procedure. Two surgeons will be working together as primary surgeons Surgeon X: Carried out the anterior exposure of the spine and mobilized the great vessels, assisted Dr. Z. and performed the closure.
Surgeon Z: Performed a minimal anterior discectomy and fusion at T2-T3 and T4-T5 levels using an anterior interbody technique and solely performed utilizing a structural allograft.
What is the CPT coding for the two surgeons?

Answer: D

Explanation:
The case describes two primary surgeons working together, which supports modifier 62 (co-surgeons) on the spine fusion/discectomy codes.
22556 = primary level anterior thoracic discectomy and fusion (T2-T3)
22585 = each additional thoracic level (T4-T5)
20931 = structural allograft (reported by the surgeon who solely performed/placed the structural allograft, per the statement-Surgeon Z) Why D fits best:
Surgeon X performed the approach/exposure and closure and assisted the primary surgeon # reports the co- surgeon spine procedure codes (22556-62, 22585-62).
Surgeon Z performed the discectomy/fusion and solely performed utilizing a structural allograft # reports
22556-62, 22585-62, plus 20931.
Options with -51 are not correct here (and add-on/related reporting logic in CPT does not support the way -51 is applied in those options).


NEW QUESTION # 81
(A patient is diagnosed with agangrenous ulceron theright thighwith thefat layer exposedand is currently being treated. What ICD-10-CM coding is reported?)

Answer: C

Explanation:
This scenario involves anon-pressure chronic ulcerwithgangrene. For non-pressure chronic ulcers of thethigh, ICD-10-CM usesL97.1-codes. "Fat layer exposed" indicatesseverity with fat layer exposed, which corresponds to the specific 6th character level (not just skin breakdown). The correct thigh code here isL97.
112(non-pressure chronic ulcer of right thigh with fat layer exposed). Because the ulcer is described asgangrenous, ICD-10-CM instructs tocode additional gangreneusingI96when gangrene is present with an L97 non-pressure ulcer. Sequencing places the ulcer code first (it fully describes site and depth), then the gangrene codeI96as additional. ThereforeI96 + L97.112are both required, and the correct option presented isI96, L97.112(Option C). Mnemonic:L97 = Location/Layer,I96 = Ischemic gangrene add-on.


NEW QUESTION # 82
The outermost protective layer of skin is called the:

Answer: D

Explanation:
The outermost protective layer of the skin is called the epidermis. It serves as a barrier to protect the body against environmental elements, pathogens, and helps to retain moisture. The epidermis itself is composed of several sub-layers, with the stratum corneum being the outermost layer.References: ICD-10-CM (current year), Chapter 12: Diseases of the Skin and Subcutaneous Tissue (L00-L99).


NEW QUESTION # 83
A patient is diagnosed with diabetic polyneuropathy.
Using ICD-10-CM coding guidelines, what ICD-10-CM coding is reported?

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 84
Patient has a 5 cm tumor in the left lower quadrant abdominal wall. A horizontal skin incision is made directly over the tumor in the patient's left lower quadrant and dissection was carried down through the dermis and subcutaneous tissue. The tumor is located and completely excised using electrocautery. The specimen is sent immediately to pathology to rule out cancer. What CPTand ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

Answer: D

Explanation:
1. Procedure and CPTCode Selection:
The scenario describes the excision of a 5 cm tumor located in the left lower quadrant of the abdominal wall.
The tumor was excised down to the dermis and subcutaneous layers and removed using electrocautery.
Code 22903 is appropriate for the excision of a soft tissue tumor in the abdominal wall greater than 5 cm, making it the correct CPTcode.
Code 22901 applies to the excision of a soft tissue tumor in the abdominal wall but only for tumors 5 cm or less. Given that the tumor in this case is exactly 5 cm, it meets the threshold for 22903, which is more appropriate here.
2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:
ICD-10-CM Code D49.2 is used for a neoplasm of unspecified behavior in the abdominal area, reflecting the fact that the pathology report is pending to determine if the tumor is malignant.
Code C76.2 would be incorrect because it is for malignant neoplasms of unspecified abdominal areas, which we cannot confirm based on the initial excision. Similarly, R19.04 (indicating a mass in the abdominal region) is a symptom code and is not appropriate for a definitive diagnosis when a neoplasm code (D49.2) exists.
3. AAPC and CPTCoding Guidelines:
Per AAPC coding guidelines, the size of the tumor is critical in selecting the correct excision code for abdominal wall neoplasms. Additionally, if the tumor's pathology is not confirmed as malignant, it is coded as a neoplasm of unspecified behavior until further details are known.
Therefore, based on CPTand ICD-10-CM coding guidelines, the verified answer is B. 22903, D49.2.


NEW QUESTION # 85
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