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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Physician Activities | 50% | - Communication - Psychosocial Aspects - Professional Behaviours - Management |
| Topic 2: Dimensions of Care | 50% | - Chronic Care - Acute Care - Assessment and Diagnosis - Health Promotion and Illness Prevention |
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NEW QUESTION # 272
A 56-year-old woman with a 4-year history of fibromyalgia presents for follow-up. She reports that she is struggling with her health and daily life. She is unhappy with her lack of progress and says she feels tired all the time and stays in bed all day. When asked why, she states she is confused about why she is not getting better. Physical exam and investigations are unchanged from baseline. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Patient education is foundational in managing fibromyalgia. Understanding the chronic but non-progressive nature of the disease, reassurance, and emphasis on self-management are crucial. It helps set realistic expectations and enhances engagement in therapy.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Rheumatology, Fibromyalgia:
"Patient education is essential. Explain the nature of fibromyalgia, emphasizing that although it is chronic, it is non-deforming and can be managed through exercise, sleep hygiene, and cognitive strategies." MCCQE1 Objectives - Psychiatry & Rheumatology > Chronic Pain Syndromes:
"Candidates must recognize the value of education and behavioral interventions in managing functional syndromes." SSRIs (D) may be used if depression is present. Iron/B12 (B) are not indicated without evidence of deficiency. Cannabinoids (A) lack strong evidence in fibromyalgia.
NEW QUESTION # 273
A mother brings her 1-month-old infant for routine health examination. The infant was born at term with no complications. He is exclusively breastfed every 3-4 hours and growth parameters are normal. His mother tells you that feedings are difficult (the baby cries any time she tries to put him down) and that she is exhausted. Her husband has been on a military mission since the infant was 2-weeks-old. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The most appropriate next step is to screen for postpartum depression . MCCQE objectives emphasize the importance of assessing maternal mental health at routine infant visits, particularly in the first months postpartum. This mother reports exhaustion, difficulty coping, and limited social support (husband deployed), all of which are risk factors for postpartum depression. Although infant growth is normal and frequent crying at 1 month can be physiologic (e.g., colic/normal infant behavior), the key clinical issue is maternal distress and functional impairment.
Postpartum depression can present with fatigue, irritability, sleep disturbance beyond expected newborn care, feelings of being overwhelmed, and impaired bonding. Early identification through targeted questioning or validated screening tools (e.g., Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale) allows timely intervention, which benefits both mother and infant.
Simply reassuring her may miss significant depressive symptoms. Increasing feeds or switching formula is not indicated with normal growth and no allergy signs. Lactation referral may help feeding mechanics but does not address maternal psychological well-being. Therefore, screening for depression is the priority.
NEW QUESTION # 274
A 58-year-old woman presents to your office with heavy vaginal bleeding. She has a history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension. Some active bleeding is visible on speculum examination. Ultrasound reveals an endometrial thickness of 12 mm. Endometrial biopsy shows complex hyperplasia with atypia. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Complex endometrial hyperplasia with atypia carries a high risk of progression to or concurrent endometrial carcinoma. Definitive management in postmenopausal women is total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo- oophorectomy.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, Abnormal Uterine Bleeding:
"Endometrial hyperplasia with atypia in postmenopausal women is best managed surgically due to the risk of malignancy." MCCQE1 Objectives - Gynecology > Postmenopausal Bleeding:
"Candidates should identify endometrial hyperplasia with atypia as an indication for hysterectomy in appropriate patients." Ablation (A) is contraindicated. Progesterone (B) is used for non-atypical hyperplasia. D&C (C) and hysteroscopy (D) are diagnostic but not definitive.
NEW QUESTION # 275
A 16-year-old boy is brought to the office for examination, which reveals the lesion in the attached image and similar lesions on other parts of his body. You also notice multiple scattered subcutaneous tumors that he says have been there for a long time. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The presence of multiple cutaneous lesions along with numerous longstanding subcutaneous tumors is most consistent with neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) . MCCQE objectives emphasize recognizing classic dermatologic findings of NF1, which include multiple neurofibromas (soft, skin-colored subcutaneous nodules) and characteristic pigmented lesions such as cafe-au-lait macules and axillary or inguinal freckling.
These lesions typically develop during childhood or adolescence and increase in number over time.
Sarcoidosis can cause skin lesions but is not associated with multiple benign peripheral nerve sheath tumors.
Dermatofibromas are usually solitary, firm nodules rather than numerous soft tumors. Vitiligo presents as depigmented macules without subcutaneous masses. Lipomatosis involves multiple lipomas but lacks the associated pigmentary skin findings seen in NF1.
NF1 is an autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation of the NF1 gene. Diagnosis is clinical based on established criteria. Recognition is important because patients require surveillance for complications such as optic gliomas, learning disabilities, skeletal abnormalities, and malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors.
NEW QUESTION # 276
A 79-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset severe chest and back pain that started 1 hour ago. She has a history of hypertension and looks unwell. Her vital signs are as follows:
blood pressure 168/108 mm Hg, heart rate 110/min, respiratory rate 22/min, temperature 36.7ยฐC. Findings of a physical examination of the chest and abdomen are normal. An urgent computed tomography (CT) scan of the chest and abdomen shows an aortic dissection extending from the descending thoracic aorta to the upper abdominal aorta. The branches of the abdominal aorta are patent. Following initial resuscitation, which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: A
Explanation:
This patient has a Stanford type B aortic dissection (involving the descending thoracic aorta distal to the left subclavian artery). MCCQE objectives emphasize distinguishing type A (ascending aorta) from type B dissections because management differs. Type A requires urgent surgical repair , whereas uncomplicated type B dissections are managed medically .
The immediate priority after diagnosis is aggressive blood pressure and heart rate control to reduce shear stress on the aortic wall. Intravenous beta-blockers (e.g., labetalol or esmolol) are first-line to lower heart rate (target ~60 bpm) and systolic blood pressure (typically 100-120 mm Hg), thereby reducing dP/dt and limiting propagation of the dissection. Vasodilators may be added after beta-blockade if needed.
Thrombolytics and anticoagulation are contraindicated because they increase risk of catastrophic bleeding. An intra-aortic balloon pump is also contraindicated. Surgical or endovascular intervention is reserved for complications (rupture, malperfusion, refractory pain, uncontrolled hypertension). This case describes an uncomplicated type B dissection; therefore, IV beta-blockade is the best next step.
NEW QUESTION # 277
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