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| Certification Vendor: | ACDIS |
|---|---|
| Exam Name: | Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient |
| Exam Number: | CCDS-O |
| Available Languages: | English |
| Related Certifications: | CCDS |
| Exam Format: | Application & Analysis, Scenario-Based Items, Multiple Choice |
| Sample Questions: | ACDIS CCDS-O Sample Questions |
| Exam Way: | Proctored at testing centers |
| Pre Condition: | Candidates must have a background in healthcare, coding, or clinical documentation. |
| Official Syllabus URL: | https://acdis.org/certifications/certified-clinical-documentation-specialist-outpatient |
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NEW QUESTION # 98
Which of the following is a provider benefit of a prospective query?
Answer: D
Explanation:
A prospective query is initiated early enough (before or during the visit workflow) so the provider can evaluate, assess, and document the condition in real time while the patient is present. This is a major provider benefit because it supports better clinical accuracy and completeness: the clinician can ask targeted questions, perform relevant exam elements, review results, and determine whether the condition is present, active, being monitored, or ruled out-then document the final clinical impression and plan. From an ACDIS outpatient CDI perspective, prospective querying improves efficiency and reduces retrospective "chart-chasing," late addenda, and documentation gaps that occur when clarification is requested after the encounter is closed. Importantly, prospective queries must remain non-leading and cannot direct the provider to a particular diagnosis (eliminating option A). They also cannot "guarantee" risk-adjusted capture because the diagnosis must be clinically supported and addressed (eliminating option B). Defining the purpose of the encounter is driven by the clinical reason for visit, not by CDI (eliminating option D).
NEW QUESTION # 99
The primary purpose of the RADV program is to
Answer: C
Explanation:
RADV (Risk Adjustment Data Validation) is a CMS audit program used in Medicare Advantage to confirm that diagnoses submitted for risk adjustment are supported by medical record documentation and meet reporting requirements. Its central aim is payment integrity-ensuring that risk-adjusted capitation payments to Medicare Advantage organizations are accurate based on valid, documented conditions. In outpatient CDI practice, RADV risk underscores why documentation must clearly support each reported diagnosis (e.g., condition evaluated/assessed/treated, clinically relevant, and properly documented by an eligible provider), because unsupported diagnoses can lead to payment recoupment and compliance exposure. RADV is not designed to assess medical necessity of the services provided (that is typically addressed through utilization review and other payer audits), nor is it focused on identifying overpayments to individual physicians (it targets plan-level risk adjustment payments). It also is separate from E/M leveling accuracy, which is governed by CPT/E/M guidelines and distinct audit processes. Therefore, the best definition of RADV's primary purpose is ensuring the integrity and accuracy of risk-adjusted payments.
NEW QUESTION # 100
A patient reports recent weight loss of 10 pounds in the last two months, decreased appetite, and no energy or desire to eat. She describes an inability to concentrate and complete simple tasks, likely due to ongoing insomnia. Documentation includes a PHQ-9 score of 11, and the patient is currently on paroxetine for depression. Which of the following is a query opportunity to obtain more specificity?
Answer: C
Explanation:
In outpatient CDI, a strong specificity opportunity is to clarify the exact diagnostic term that best matches clinical indicators and supports correct ICD-10-CM reporting. The patient has multiple depressive symptoms (weight loss, poor appetite, low energy, impaired concentration), is already treated with an antidepressant (paroxetine), and has a PHQ-9 score of 11, consistent with at least moderate depressive symptom burden that warrants diagnostic clarity. Among the options, only Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) is a recognized clinical diagnosis category with structured ICD-10-CM options that require further specificity (e.g., single vs recurrent episode, severity-mild/moderate/severe, psychotic features, and remission status). The other choices ("occurrence," "event," "reaction") are nonspecific, nonstandard phrases that do not reliably map to accurate ICD-10-CM diagnostic reporting and do not help improve documentation precision. A compliant query would ask the provider to specify whether the patient has MDD and, if so, document the episode type/severity and relationship to insomnia if clinically relevant, ensuring the record reflects what is being evaluated and treated during the encounter.
NEW QUESTION # 101
A patient is seen in the office for a persistent cough. Provider documentation states: "History of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, asthma, and hypertension. Hypertension treated with Enalapril. Cough an adverse effect of the ACE inhibitor; discontinue Enalapril. COPD stable. Instructed to continue meds for COPD/asthma." Which of the following diagnoses should be reported for this encounter?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Outpatient diagnosis reporting requires coding conditions that are evaluated, assessed, treated, or that influence care/management at the encounter. The chief reason for the visit is the persistent cough, which is assessed and attributed to an adverse effect of an ACE inhibitor (enalapril). For outpatient coding of medication adverse effects, the documentation supports reporting both the manifestation (cough) and the adverse effect of the drug (ACE inhibitor adverse effect), because the provider identified the causal relationship and changed therapy by discontinuing enalapril. In addition, the provider addresses chronic conditions that are clinically relevant to the visit: COPD is assessed as "stable" and the patient is instructed to continue COPD/asthma medications, demonstrating ongoing management. Hypertension also remains relevant because medication therapy is adjusted due to the adverse effect; the patient still has HTN even though one agent is discontinued. Therefore, all five items-cough, ACE inhibitor adverse effect, COPD, asthma, and hypertension-are supported and should be reported, making option D the most appropriate.
NEW QUESTION # 102
Provider documentation states: "A patient is seen today with DM type 2, peripheral neuropathy with diabetic ulcer of the left great toe, hypertension, and BMI 43. O2 dependent, chronic respiratory failure due to COPD, stopped smoking 2 years ago - 84 packs per year smoking habit." Which of the following query opportunities will impact risk adjustment?
Answer: A
Explanation:
In ambulatory CDI, "risk adjustment impact" means the clarification can change whether an HCC-relevant condition is captured accurately (or captured at all) based on ICD-10-CM reporting rules. Here, "DM2 with peripheral neuropathy with diabetic ulcer" already establishes diabetes with complications, so querying option B adds little-complications are already documented. "Nicotine dependence" is not supported because the patient stopped smoking two years ago; at most, this supports a history of nicotine dependence, which generally does not drive HCC risk scoring. "Morbid obesity" may be clinically relevant (BMI 43 supports it), but obesity typically does not produce meaningful CMS-HCC risk adjustment impact compared with other chronic categories. The diabetic ulcer does matter: correct reporting requires an additional L97.- code that depends on ulcer severity/depth (skin breakdown, fat layer exposed, necrosis of muscle/bone). Clarifying depth supports accurate ulcer severity coding and can affect HCC capture/validation for chronic ulcer burden.
NEW QUESTION # 103
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