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EC-COUNCIL 212-89 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Section	Weight	Objectives
Topic 1: Handling and Response to Web Application Security Incidents	15%	- Web Application Security Incidents 1. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) 2. SQL Injection - Web Application Incident Response 1. Log Analysis 2. Web App Forensics
Topic 2: Handling and Response to Cloud Security Incidents	15%	- Cloud Incident Response 1. Shared Responsibility Model 2. Cloud Security Tools - Cloud Security Incidents 1. Cloud Incident Handling 2. Cloud Forensics
Topic 3: Handling and Response to Malware Incidents	18%	- Malware Incident Handling 1. Malware Analysis 2. Malware Incident Response - Malware Handling Tools 1. Anti-Malware Tools 2. Sandbox Analysis
Topic 4: Incident Handling and Response Process	18%	- Incident Handling and Response Concepts 1. Incident Classification 2. Incident Terminology - Incident Handling and Response Process 1. IH&R Process Steps 2. CSIRT 3. Incident Response Policy
Topic 5: First Response	14%	- Incident Handling and Response Steps 1. Incident Prioritization 2. Incident Recording - First Response Concepts 1. First Response Process 2. First Response Dos and Don'ts
Topic 6: Handling and Response to Network Security Incidents	15%	- Network Incident Response 1. Traffic Analysis 2. Network Forensics - Network Security Incidents 1. Denial-of-Service (DoS) 2. Man-in-the-Middle (MITM)
Topic 7: Handling and Response to Email Security Incidents	15%	- Email Security Incidents 1. Email Spoofing 2. Phishing - Email Incident Response 1. Email Investigation 2. Email Forensics

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EC-COUNCIL EC Council Certified Incident Handler (ECIH v3) Sample Questions (Q368-Q373):

NEW QUESTION # 368
As an EC-Council Certified Incident Handler (ECIH), you have been assigned to handle a malware incident in a large organization. You have noticed that the malware initiates at system bootup and runs in the background without the user's knowledge. You have access to tools like WinPatrol and Driver Booster. What should be your immediate course of action?

A. Use Driver Booster to scan for outdated drivers and update them immediately.
B. Use WinPatrol to monitor startup programs and control the execution of potentially malicious programs.
C. Use WinPatrol to analyze running tasks and end any suspicious tasks.
D. Monitor the system device drivers using Driver Booster to detect any malicious activities.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 369
A national research agency was recently subjected to a comprehensive cybersecurity compliance audit.
During the audit, reviewers evaluated how the agency's incident response unit manages harmful code samples during investigations. The assessment revealed that team members often interacted with dangerous file payloads directly on enterprise-connected systems used for general operations. Furthermore, no precautionary renaming was applied to prevent accidental triggering, and sensitive materials were placed in areas accessible by non-specialized personnel. The auditors flagged these practices as severely noncompliant with safe sample processing protocols and recommended urgent changes to prevent operational fallout or accidental outbreaks.
Which best practice for secure handling of malicious code was most clearly disregarded in this case?

A. Tagging malware sample files with platform-specific behavior indicators for improved categorization.
B. Storing malware samples with non-executable file extensions in isolated environments.
C. Encrypting all malware sample files using symmetric encryption.
D. Create vulnerability documentation for each malware sample to support threat profiling and archival.

Answer: B

Explanation:
This scenario highlights violations of forensic readiness and safe malware handling, which are explicitly covered in the ECIH First Response and Malware Analysis modules. ECIH stresses that malware samples must never be handled on production or enterprise-connected systems, as this creates a high risk of accidental execution, lateral infection, and organizational impact.
Option A is correct because ECIH mandates that malicious code samples be stored in isolated, non- networked environments and renamed with non-executable extensions (for example, .malware, .bin, or .txt) to prevent accidental execution. This practice ensures operational safety and preserves forensic integrity.
Option B improves confidentiality but does not prevent accidental execution. Option C supports documentation but does not mitigate execution risk. Option D aids classification but does not address safe handling.
The described behavior-handling live malware on enterprise systems without isolation or renaming- directly contradicts ECIH best practices. Proper sample isolation, renaming, and access restriction are mandatory controls to prevent secondary incidents during investigations, making Option A the correct answer.

NEW QUESTION # 370
If a hacker cannot find any other way to attack an organization, they can influence an employee or a disgruntled staff member. What type of threat is this?

A. Identity theft
B. Footprinting
C. Phishing attack
D. Insider attack

Answer: D

Explanation:
If a hacker influences an employee or a disgruntled staff member to gain access to an organization's resources or sensitive information, this is classified as an insider attack.Insider attacks are perpetrated by individuals within the organization, such as employees, contractors, or business associates, who have inside information concerning the organization's security practices, data, and computer systems. The threat from insiders can be intentional, as in the case of a disgruntled employee seeking to harm the organization, or unintentional, where an employee is manipulated or coerced by external parties without realizing the implications of their actions.
Phishing attacks, footprinting, and identity theft represent different types of cybersecurity threats where the attacker's method or objective differs from that of insider attacks.References:The ECIH v3 certification program addresses various types of threats, including insider threats, emphasizing the importance of recognizing and mitigating risks posed by individuals within the organization.

NEW QUESTION # 371
During the eradication phase of a web application security incident, the incident response team discovers that the attacker has compromised the organization's Active Directory domain controller. What is the best course of action for the incident response team?

A. Install additional security measures on the affected domain controller
B. Run a malware scan on the affected domain controller
C. Change all passwords and credentials on the affected domain controller
D. Wipe and rebuild the affected domain controller

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 372
Which of the following tools helps incident handlers to view the file system, retrieve deleted data, perform timeline analysis, web artifacts, etc., during an incident response process?

A. nblslal
B. Process Explorer
C. netstat
D. Autopsy

Answer: D

Explanation:
Autopsy is a digital forensics platform and graphical interface to The Sleuth Kit and other digital forensics tools. It is used by law enforcement, military, and corporate examiners to investigate what happened on a computer. Autopsy enables incident handlers to view the file system, retrieve deleted data, perform timeline analysis, and analyze web artifacts, among other functionalities. This tool is particularly useful during the incident response process for conducting in-depth investigations into the nature of a security incident, identifying the methods used by attackers, and recovering lost or compromised data.
References:The EC-Council's Certified Incident Handler (ECIH v3) program covers digital forensic tools and techniques, highlighting the capabilities of Autopsy for supporting comprehensive incident investigations and response activities.
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NEW QUESTION # 373
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