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APMG-International ISO-IEC-27001-Foundation Exam Overview:

Certification Vendor:	APMG-International
Exam Name:	APMG ISO/IEC 27001 Foundation Examination (2022 Edition)
Exam Number:	ISO-IEC-27001-Foundation
Related Certifications:	ISO/IEC 27001 Lead Implementer ISO/IEC 27001 Practitioner ISO/IEC 27001 Lead Auditor
Exam Duration:	60 minutes
Exam Format:	Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ), Closed book
Available Languages:	English
Real Exam Qty:	40
Recommended Training:	APMG Accredited Training Providers
Exam Registration:	APMG International Exam Registration
Sample Questions:	APMG-International ISO-IEC-27001-Foundation Sample Questions
Exam Way:	Online or onsite proctored exam via APMG-accredited examination institutes
Pre Condition:	No formal prerequisites required. Basic understanding of information security concepts is recommended.
Official Syllabus URL:	https://apmg-international.com

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APMG-International ISO-IEC-27001-Foundation Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 1	Self Confidence: Self-confidence is the belief in one’s abilities, competence, and value, reflecting a sense of assurance and inner strength.
Topic 2	Security Breaches: Security breaches occur when unauthorized access or violations of security protocols are detected or imminent, potentially compromising data or system integrity.
Topic 3	Data Security: Data security refers to protecting digital information—such as that stored in databases or networks—from destruction, unauthorized access, or malicious attacks, ensuring confidentiality and integrity.
Topic 4	Information Management (IM): Information management (IM) encompasses the entire lifecycle of information within an organization—from its collection and storage to its distribution, use, and eventual archiving or disposal.
Topic 5	Compliance: Regulatory compliance refers to an organization’s commitment to understanding and adhering to applicable laws, policies, and regulations to operate within established legal and ethical standards.
Topic 6	Continuous Improvement Process (CI, CIP): A continuous or continual improvement process (CIP or CI) involves ongoing, systematic efforts to enhance products, services, or operational processes to achieve higher efficiency and effectiveness over time.

APMG-International ISO/IEC 27001 (2022) Foundation Exam Sample Questions (Q39-Q44):

NEW QUESTION # 39
Which statement about the conduct of audits is true?

A. One of the focus areas for a surveillance audit is the output from internal audits and management reviews
B. During Stage 1 of a certification audit, evidence is collected by observing activities
C. Third party audits are conducted by a customer of the organization
D. The certificate issued after a successful re-certification audit in typical schemes lasts for one year

Answer: A

Explanation:
Clause 9.2 (Internal Audit) and Clause 9.3 (Management Review) highlight that audit outputs and management reviews are key inputs for evaluating ISMS performance. Surveillance audits, conducted by Certification Bodies, check ongoing compliance and effectiveness. ISO certification schemes (per ISO/IEC
17021) require surveillance audits to verify whether corrective actions and continuous improvements are being made. A critical focus area is theresults of internal audits and management reviews, ensuring that the organization maintains its ISMS between certification cycles.
Option A is incorrect - third-party audits are performed by independent Certification Bodies, not customers.
Option B is incorrect - certificates are typically valid forthree yearswith annual surveillance. Option D is incorrect - Stage 1 is primarily adocumentation and readiness review, not evidence observation.
Therefore, the verified correct answer isC.

NEW QUESTION # 40
What is the purpose of an internal audit?

A. To verify that the ISMS conforms to ISO/IEC 27001 and is effectively implemented
B. To conduct employee training
C. To perform vulnerability scanning
D. To certify the ISMS

Answer: A

Explanation:
An internal audit evaluates whether the ISMS conforms to organizational requirements and ISO/IEC 27001. It also verifies that processes are effectively implemented, maintained, and continually improved before external certification or surveillance audits.

NEW QUESTION # 41
Which information is required to be included in the Statement of Applicability?

A. The criteria against which risk will be evaluated
B. The justification for including each information security control
C. The scope and boundaries of the ISMS
D. The risk assessment approach of the organization

Answer: B

Explanation:
Clause 6.1.3 (d) requires that the organization"produce a Statement of Applicability that contains the necessary controls (see Annex A), and justification for inclusions, whether they are implemented or not, and the justification for exclusions." This is the defining requirement of the SoA: it documents which Annex A controls are relevant, which are implemented, and the justification for inclusion/exclusion. While the ISMS scope (A) is documented in Clause 4.3, and risk evaluation criteria (C) are defined in Clause 6.1.2, these do not belong in the SoA. The SoA does not describe the full risk assessment approach (B); that is part of the risk assessment methodology.
Therefore, the mandatory requirement for the SoA isjustification for including (or excluding) each information security control.

NEW QUESTION # 42
Which of the following is an information asset?

A. Employee database
B. Office building
C. Laptop computer
D. Network cable

Answer: A

Explanation:
An information asset is valuable information that supports business operations, such as databases, customer records, or intellectual property. Physical devices store or process information but are generally considered supporting assets rather than information assets.

NEW QUESTION # 43
What is the definition of a threat according to ISO/IEC 27000?

A. A single or a series of unwanted or unexpected information security events
B. A potential cause of an unwanted incident which can result in harm to a system or organization
C. A weakness of an asset or a control that can be exploited
D. The risk remaining after risk treatment

Answer: B

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27000 standards:
According to ISO/IEC 27000:2018, Clause 3.74, athreatis defined as:
"Potential cause of an unwanted incident, which can result in harm to a system or organization." This definition directly matches option A.
* Option B refers to an "information security incident" (ISO/IEC 27000:2018, Clause 3.32).
* Option C describes a "vulnerability" (ISO/IEC 27000:2018, Clause 3.67).
* Option D refers to "residual risk" (ISO/IEC 27000:2018, Clause 3.61).
The standard emphasizes that threats exploit vulnerabilities, causing incidents that can harm information confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Correctly identifying threats is critical for risk assessment (Clause
6.1.2). Thus, the correct definition per ISO/IEC 27000 isA.

NEW QUESTION # 44
......

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