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ACDIS CCDS-O Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Quality, Regulatory, and Health Initiatives: Covers population health, MSSP, ACO models, MACRA
  • MIPS, compliant query development, RADV audits, OIG compliance, problem list maintenance, and HIPAA requirements in outpatient CDI.
Topic 2
  • Risk Adjustment Models and Impact of Documentation and Coding: Covers CMS-HCC model fundamentals, RAF scoring, Medicare Advantage payments, hierarchies, disease interactions, and compliant HCC reporting requirements.
Topic 3
  • CDI Program Concepts: Department Metrics and Provider Education: Covers provider education development, CDI performance metrics including query rates, RAF progression, HCC capture, ACO
  • MSSP impact, and physician documentation's effect on quality reporting.

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ACDIS Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient Sample Questions (Q123-Q128):

NEW QUESTION # 123
Which of the following actions should be taken when the documentation states: "Hemiparesis, history of CVA, and intracranial trauma?"

Answer: A

Explanation:
This documentation presents a key outpatient CDI problem: hemiparesis is present, but two potential causal conditions are referenced-history of CVA and intracranial trauma-without clear linkage. In ICD-10-CM, correct reporting of hemiparesis often depends on identifying whether it is a late effect (sequela) of a prior stroke, a residual from traumatic brain injury, or due to another neurologic condition. Coding hemiparesis automatically as a CVA sequela (option A) would be assumptive and potentially inaccurate, because the clinician has not documented the relationship. Likewise, simply coding hemiparesis alone (option D) may miss important etiologic specificity, and coding both histories without clarifying the cause (option B) still leaves the main clinical ambiguity unresolved. Outpatient CDI best practice is to issue a non-leading query requesting provider clarification of the etiology/source of the hemiparesis (e.g., due to prior CVA, due to prior intracranial trauma, both, or other/undetermined). This supports accurate diagnosis reporting, appropriate sequencing, and defensible risk/quality representation.


NEW QUESTION # 124
Which of the following descriptors is classified as an uncertain diagnosis?

Answer: D

Explanation:
In outpatient CDI and coding guidance, an "uncertain diagnosis" is identified by wording that indicates the provider has not confirmed the condition (e.g., possible, probable, suspected, rule out, question of, concern for). These terms reflect diagnostic consideration rather than an established diagnosis. Option A uses the phrase "concern for," which is a classic uncertainty qualifier and signals the provider is considering streptococcal pneumonia but has not definitively diagnosed it. In contrast, options B and D describe active treatment "for streptococcal pneumonia," which implies the provider is managing the condition as a working diagnosis; however, in outpatient coding, treatment alone does not automatically make a diagnosis confirmed if the documentation still reflects uncertainty-CDI would look for explicit provider confirmation. Option C ("evidence of") generally suggests supportive findings and is commonly interpreted as stronger than "concern for," though CDI would still assess whether the provider has clearly stated a confirmed diagnosis in the assessment/plan. Therefore, the clearest uncertain descriptor is "concern for."


NEW QUESTION # 125
A patient is evaluated in the clinic. Documentation states: "HIV positive, gravida 1 at 24 weeks." Which of the following conditions will be coded and in which sequence based on the documentation?

Answer: B

Explanation:
In outpatient coding, selection and sequencing must follow ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines, including obstetric chapter rules. When HIV is documented in a pregnant patient, the pregnancy complication code is sequenced first because the pregnancy status frames the encounter and drives the obstetric complication coding structure. The phrase "HIV positive" (without documentation of HIV-related illness or "HIV disease") is treated as asymptomatic HIV infection status, which aligns with the status concept rather than active HIV disease. Therefore, the correct approach is to code pregnancy complicated by asymptomatic HIV first (obstetric complication category), followed by the HIV status code to fully describe the condition affecting the pregnancy. Options that place "pregnancy" second do not follow obstetric sequencing conventions, and options that assume "HIV disease" overstep the documentation because "HIV positive" alone does not confirm symptomatic HIV disease. Outpatient CDI best practice would be to query if the provider intends HIV disease versus asymptomatic status, but based strictly on the given statement, pregnancy with asymptomatic HIV is most appropriate.


NEW QUESTION # 126
CMS-HCC risk adjustment methodology seeks to measure

Answer: A

Explanation:
The CMS-HCC risk adjustment methodology is designed to estimate an individual beneficiary's expected healthcare resource use and cost relative to an average Medicare beneficiary. It does this by converting demographic factors (such as age/sex and certain eligibility variables) plus documented, coded chronic conditions into a Risk Adjustment Factor (RAF). That RAF is then used to forecast the likely cost of caring for that specific patient in the payment year and to adjust benchmarks/payments so plans and providers managing sicker patients are compared more fairly to those managing healthier patients. This is why outpatient CDI emphasizes accurate, specific documentation and annual recapture of active conditions that are monitored, evaluated, assessed/addressed, or treated-because those coded conditions drive the predicted cost profile. CMS-HCC is not a mortality prediction tool (eliminating B), nor is it intended to measure "group costs" as the primary target (C), even though aggregated risk scores can be used for population analytics. It also does not measure an individual physician's cost of care provision (D); it measures patient-level expected cost burden.


NEW QUESTION # 127
An 81-year-old is seen by his family physician for continued confusion and poor memory. PMH includes HTN, GERD, and Parkinson's. The provider reviews the neurologist's consultation notes, evaluates the patient's current mental state, and addresses the diagnoses of HTN, GERD, and Parkinson's. The provider's problem list included: Dementia, GERD, HTN, and Parkinson's. Which of the following is the first-listed diagnosis?

Answer: B

Explanation:
In the outpatient setting, the first-listed diagnosis is the condition chiefly responsible for the services provided during the encounter. Here, the stated reason for the visit is continued confusion and poor memory, and the provider specifically evaluates the patient's current mental state and references neurology consultation notes-actions that directly support assessment of a cognitive disorder. While HTN, GERD, and Parkinson's are also addressed and may be reportable if they meet encounter relevance (e.g., monitored, evaluated, assessed/managed, or treated), they are not the primary driver for today's visit based on the presenting complaint. Outpatient documentation and coding guidance emphasizes sequencing the diagnosis that best explains the visit's main purpose first, with additional coexisting conditions listed afterward when they impact care. Since "dementia" is on the active problem list and aligns with the patient's cognitive symptoms and the physician's mental-status evaluation, it is the most appropriate first-listed diagnosis among the options.


NEW QUESTION # 128
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