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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Exam Syllabus Topics:

SectionObjectives
Topic 1: Physician Activities- Communication
  • 1. Informed consent
  • 2. Physician-patient communication
  • 3. Team communication
  • 4. Breaking bad news
- Management
  • 1. Therapeutic interventions
  • 2. Follow-up planning
  • 3. Pharmacological and non-pharmacological treatment
- Professionalism
  • 1. Leadership and scholarly habits
  • 2. Self-awareness and reflection
  • 3. Ethics and legal duties
  • 4. Physician health for sustainable practice
  • 5. Lifelong learning
- Assessment
  • 1. Investigations and diagnostic reasoning
  • 2. History taking
  • 3. Physical examination
Topic 2: Dimensions of Care- Acute Care
  • 1. Emergency and critical care
  • 2. Acute presentations and stabilization
  • 3. Management of acute medical conditions
- Health Promotion and Illness Prevention
  • 1. Disease prevention measures
  • 2. Screening and periodic health exams
  • 3. Risk factor reduction
  • 4. Patient education
  • 5. Health maintenance
- Psychosocial Aspects
  • 1. Psychosocial determinants of health
  • 2. Patient communication
  • 3. Mental health and behavioral sciences
- Chronic Care
  • 1. Chronic disease management
  • 2. Long-term care
  • 3. Rehabilitation

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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam Sample Questions (Q123-Q128):

NEW QUESTION # 123
A 36-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, aborta 0, presents to the Labour and Delivery unit of a primary care hospital. She is at 40 weeks' gestation. She is having contractions and leaking fluid. She is fearful and does not want to deliver vaginally. Which one of the following is the best next step?

Answer: D

Explanation:
The most appropriate next step is to explore her concerns and provide counselling regarding labour and pain management options . MCCQE objectives emphasize patient-centered care, informed decision-making, and respect for autonomy while ensuring that patients receive appropriate information about risks and benefits.
This patient is in active labour at term with ruptured membranes and expresses fear about vaginal delivery.
The immediate priority is to assess the source of her fear (pain, complications, prior trauma, misinformation) and provide education about available analgesia options (e.g., epidural, intravenous opioids, nonpharmacologic methods) and the relative risks and benefits of cesarean versus vaginal delivery.
Automatically arranging a cesarean without discussion is inappropriate, particularly in a primary care setting without clear medical indication. Conversely, refusing cesarean outright is paternalistic and fails to address her concerns. Analgesia may be appropriate but should follow exploration of her preferences. Therefore, empathetic discussion and shared decision-making are the best initial approach.


NEW QUESTION # 124
A 24-year-old woman presents with rapidly increasing lower leg pain. Less than 24 hours ago, she fell off her bicycle and had some minor abrasions. On examination, she is in severe pain and appears anxious. Local examination of her leg reveals mild discoloration with marked tenderness but no swelling in her calf. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Rapid progression of pain out of proportion to exam, systemic symptoms (anxiety), and skinchanges without major swelling are classic for necrotizing fasciitis-a surgical emergency. Discoloration and extreme tenderness should raise immediate concern.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Emergency Medicine / Surgery:
"Necrotizing fasciitis presents with severe pain, systemic toxicity, rapid progression, and early skin changes (discoloration). Pain out of proportion is a key clue." MCCQE1 Objectives (Emergency Medicine > 51-1: Soft Tissue Infections):
"Candidates must recognize necrotizing fasciitis and initiate urgent surgical consultation." Plantaris rupture (A) is benign and localized. DVT (B) is more gradual and often with swelling. Cellulitis (C) progresses more slowly and is less painful. Baker's cyst (D) causes posterior knee pain, not severe systemic illness.


NEW QUESTION # 125
A 1-week-old boy born at full term is brought by his parents to the office with a 2-day history of eye swelling and watery discharge. This morning, the discharge became thick and yellow. On physical exam, he is afebrile and fussy with bilateral eyelid edema, purulent discharge, and erythematous conjunctivae. After taking appropriate cultures of the eyes, which one of the following is the best next step?

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 126
A 7-year-old boy is brought to your clinic with a 2-day history of being mildly unwell with malaise and decreased appetite but no fever. This morning, it was discovered that he had oral lesions as shown in the attached image. His mother wonders how she can prevent this from spreading to his younger siblings.
Which one of the following is the best advice?

Answer: B

Explanation:
The clinical presentation of mild prodromal symptoms followed by oral lesions in a school-aged child is most consistent with a viral stomatitis such as primary herpes simplex virus (HSV-1) infection. HSV-1 is highly contagious and is transmitted primarily through direct contact with infected oral secretions. According to MCCQE objectives on pediatric infectious diseases, prevention of transmission relies on appropriate infection control measures, particularly avoidance of sharing utensils, cups, toothbrushes, and minimizing direct contact such as kissing during the active lesion phase. Antibiotics are not indicated because this is a viral infection.
Routine antiviral prophylaxis for healthy siblings is not recommended. Varicella vaccination is unrelated to HSV infection and would not prevent spread. The condition is contagious, especially when lesions are present and viral shedding occurs. Therefore, counseling families regarding strict hand hygiene and avoidance of direct contact with oral secretions is the most appropriate preventive strategy.


NEW QUESTION # 127
A 30-year-old man comes to the office and asks you to write him a note for his employer that recommends a stress leave. He says he feels entitled to a rest. He comes across as irritable and impulsive. He appears to show little regard for the law and admits to recently embezzling $5,000 from his employer. He justifies his actions and shows no remorse. He has a history of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder as a child. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 128
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