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ASHRM CPHRM Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Clinical
  • Patient Safety: This domain focuses on improving patient safety by promoting a safety culture, managing incident reporting, educating staff and patients, addressing ethical concerns, and implementing corrective actions to reduce risks and prevent harm.
Topic 2
  • Claims and Litigation: This domain focuses on handling potential claims and legal cases, including claim reporting, litigation support, legal documentation management, and analyzing claims data to understand risk exposure.
Topic 3
  • Legal and Regulatory: This domain focuses on ensuring compliance with healthcare laws and regulations, protecting patient information, managing reporting requirements, and supporting accreditation and regulatory responses.
Topic 4
  • Healthcare Operations: This domain involves managing operational risk activities such as conducting risk assessments, developing policies, coordinating risk programs, supervising staff, and supporting patient safety initiatives.
Topic 5
  • Risk Financing: This domain covers managing financial risks through insurance programs, claims coordination, loss analysis, and developing strategies to reduce financial exposure.

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ASHRM Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management (CPHRM) Sample Questions (Q87-Q92):

NEW QUESTION # 87
A 22-year-old man has been treated at a hospital for a psychiatric condition. His mother requests that a copy of the patient's medical record be released to her. The risk manager's advice to the medical records department should be to

Answer: D

Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, a 22-year-old patient is a legal adult and retains full rights to privacy and control over disclosure of protected health information under HIPAA and applicable state confidentiality laws. Psychiatric records are subject to heightened confidentiality protections in many jurisdictions.
Absent a court order or legal guardianship determination, a parent does not have automatic access to an adult child's medical records. Therefore, before releasing any information, the organization must verify that the patient has executed a valid, specific authorization for release of information that complies with HIPAA requirements. The authorization must clearly identify the recipient, the information to be disclosed, and be properly signed and dated.
Consulting legal counsel or a treating psychiatrist does not substitute for proper authorization. Similarly, requesting guardianship documentation would only be appropriate if the mother asserts legal guardianship status; however, in the absence of such documentation, release cannot occur.
Legal and regulatory objectives emphasize strict adherence to privacy laws, protection of psychiatric records, and proper authorization procedures. Therefore, verification of a signed release of information from the patient is required before disclosure.


NEW QUESTION # 88
The risk manager is called by an administrator and told that a member of the pharmacy staff was arrested last night for illegal distribution of controlled substances. Which of the following recommendations should the risk manager make to administration?
* Verify the pre-employment background check.
* Inventory controlled drug stock.
* Interview other pharmacy staff.
* Notify the National Practitioner Data Bank.

Answer: B

Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, when a pharmacy staff member is arrested for illegal distribution of controlled substances, the organization must focus on immediate operational and patient safety concerns.
Verifying the pre-employment background check ensures compliance with hiring policies and identifies whether due diligence was properly conducted.
An immediate inventory of controlled drug stock is essential to detect diversion, identify discrepancies, and comply with DEA requirements for controlled substance accountability. Prompt reconciliation of medication records protects patient safety and mitigates regulatory exposure.
Interviewing other pharmacy staff supports investigation of potential diversion patterns, internal control weaknesses, and workflow vulnerabilities. This step aligns with system-based risk management and prevention of further loss.
Notification to the National Practitioner Data Bank is not automatically required based solely on an arrest.
NPDB reporting typically involves certain professional review actions, licensure restrictions, or clinical privilege actions, not merely criminal charges unless formal disciplinary action occurs.
Health Care Operations objectives emphasize safeguarding controlled substances, regulatory compliance, and internal investigation. Therefore, verifying background checks, inventorying stock, and interviewing staff are appropriate recommendations.


NEW QUESTION # 89
Which of the following best describes the appropriate scope of a risk manager's involvement in community disaster preparedness?

Answer: B

Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards endorsed by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, a risk manager's role in community disaster preparedness extends beyond narrow liability analysis. The appropriate scope involves integration of emergency management into the organization's broader enterprise risk management framework.
Enterprise risk management ERM is a structured, organization-wide approach to identifying, assessing, and managing risks that may affect strategic objectives, operations, financial stability, and reputation. Disaster preparedness is a critical operational risk that must be aligned with governance, compliance, continuity planning, and asset protection strategies. By incorporating emergency management into ERM, the risk manager ensures coordination across clinical services, facilities, supply chain, communications, and leadership structures.
Option A focuses only on post-event liability. Option C limits involvement to quantification without strategic integration. Option D addresses reimbursement processes rather than preparedness strategy.
Health Care Operations objectives emphasize collaboration with emergency management teams, regulatory compliance with preparedness standards, and resilience planning to protect patients, staff, and assets.
Therefore, integrating emergency management into a comprehensive enterprise risk management plan best defines the risk manager's appropriate scope of involvement.


NEW QUESTION # 90
In general, how many steps should an FMEA proceed in each direction (upstream/downstream) when mapping a process for failure analysis?

Answer: D

Explanation:
A practical FMEA requires enough process context to capture upstream causes and downstream consequences without becoming unmanageably large. A common operational rule-of-thumb is to examine roughlytwo steps upstream and two steps downstreamfrom a target step to uncover handoffs, dependencies, and failure propagation. Risk management objectives focus on identifying failure modes that originate earlier (e.g., incorrect patient ID at registration leading to lab/specimen mismatch) and harms that emerge later (e.g., delayed result communication causing deterioration). The exact boundary depends on complexity and risk; high-hazard workflows (blood products, surgery, chemo) may require deeper mapping. The goal is usable granularity: map, identify failure modes, score (S-O-D), prioritize, implement controls, and reassess residual risk.


NEW QUESTION # 91
Which of the following isnotone of the patient rights enumerated in the Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA)?

Answer: B

Explanation:
The PSDA focuses onpatient autonomy and informed decision-making, especially aroundadvance directives. It requires certain healthcare organizations to inform patients of their rights under state law to make decisions about medical care, ask whether the patient has an advance directive, document it, and avoid discrimination based on whether an advance directive exists. The Act doesnotcreate a right for patients to select any medication they want irrespective of clinical appropriateness, prescribing laws, formularies, allergies, contraindications, or standards of care. Risk management objectives here include: ensuring compliant admission workflows (education + documentation), reducing disputes through early clarification of preferences, and preventing ethical/legal breakdowns during incapacity. Operationally, PSDA compliance improves care planning, reduces unwanted treatment, and lowers complaint/litigation risk by showing the organization respected patient rights and followed required processes.


NEW QUESTION # 92
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