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CompTIA CS0-004 Exam Syllabus Topics:

SectionWeightObjectives
Topic 1: Incident Response and Management24%- Incident Handling and Investigation
  • 1. Incident Response Lifecycle and Frameworks
  • 2. Evidence Collection and Forensic Fundamentals
  • 3. Containment, Eradication, and Recovery
  • 4. Post-Incident Activities and Lessons Learned
Topic 2: Security Operations34%- Security Monitoring and Analysis
  • 1. Threat Detection and Threat Hunting
  • 2. Endpoint, Network, and Cloud Monitoring
  • 3. SIEM Implementation and Analysis
  • 4. System and Network Architecture Security
  • 5. SOAR, EDR, and XDR Concepts
Topic 3: Vulnerability Management26%- Vulnerability Assessment and Remediation
  • 1. Remediation Verification and Tracking
  • 2. Vulnerability Prioritization and Risk Assessment
  • 3. Vulnerability Scanning and Assessment
  • 4. Cloud and Container Security Vulnerabilities
Topic 4: Reporting and Communication16%- Documentation and Stakeholder Communication
  • 1. Incident Reporting Requirements and Compliance
  • 2. Risk Communication to Technical and Business Audiences
  • 3. Security Reporting and Documentation

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CS0-004 Guide Questions - CS0-004 Test Torrent & CS0-004 Exam Torrent

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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q185-Q190):

NEW QUESTION # 185
An analyst receives the following output:

Which of the following is the correct number of discovered systems that are allowing unencrypted traffic?

Answer: A

Explanation:
The scan results identify two systems exposing services that permit communications without transport encryption, making B the correct count. The analyst must examine each discovered service rather than merely count open ports, because the security property being evaluated is whether the identified protocol transmits its session or application data without adequate encryption.
Common examples include HTTP instead of HTTPS, Telnet instead of SSH, and legacy FTP rather than protected file-transfer alternatives. The presence of an unencrypted service does not automatically prove that sensitive information is currently being transmitted, but it identifies a configuration that can expose credentials, commands, session content, or application data to interception when used.
The correct vulnerability-management workflow is to map discovered ports to services, determine the security characteristics of those protocols, verify whether encryption is available and enforced, and then prioritize remediation according to asset exposure and business requirements. Where possible, administrators should disable unnecessary cleartext services or replace them with cryptographically protected equivalents.
This question therefore tests interpretation of vulnerability or port-scan output , not simple arithmetic.
The two affected systems are those whose discovered services permit cleartext communications.
Study Guide Reference: Vulnerability Management # Scan Result Interpretation # Ports and Protocols # Cleartext Services # Encryption in Transit # Remediation and Secure Configuration.


NEW QUESTION # 186
A vendor releases details of a new vulnerability. When an analyst reviews the scheduled scans, no vulnerabilities are identified. The vulnerability is only discovered after a configuration change.
Which of the following scan types did the analyst configure?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Agent-based scanning monitors the local system and can detect vulnerabilities when endpoint configurations or installed software change, rather than relying solely on periodic network scans.


NEW QUESTION # 187
Which of the following occurs during the analysis phase of the incident response process?

Answer: C

Explanation:
During analysis, alerts are validated and triaged to determine the incident's severity, scope, priority, and potential impact. Reimaging is recovery, while isolation is containment.


NEW QUESTION # 188
A security analyst responds to an alert regarding identity and access management activity within the cloud environment. The attacker is currently trying to gain access from one isolated cloud subscription to another via a compromised user role.
Which of the following aspects of the MITRE ATT & CK framework is the attacker trying to perform?

Answer: B

Explanation:
The attacker is attempting lateral movement because an already compromised identity is being used to move from one cloud environment or subscription into another. Lateral movement describes adversary activity intended to reach additional systems, services, accounts, or resources after an initial foothold has been established.
MITRE ATT & CK specifically includes cloud-oriented lateral movement. Its Lateral Movement tactic documents adversaries using valid accounts to access additional cloud services and resources within compromised environments. MITRE also documents cloud-role manipulation that may enable movement into additional accounts, demonstrating how identity and role relationships can become lateral-movement pathways in cloud architectures.
Privilege escalation would apply if the attacker were primarily attempting to obtain greater permissions within the current security context. Persistence concerns maintaining long-term access. Execution concerns running malicious code or commands. Credential access involves obtaining credentials or authentication material.
In this scenario, the attacker already possesses a compromised user role. The objective is to use that existing access to traverse a trust boundary and reach another isolated subscription. That movement between security domains is the decisive indicator of the Lateral Movement tactic.
Study Guide Reference: Security Operations # MITRE ATT & CK # Lateral Movement # Cloud Services # Valid Accounts # IAM Roles # Cross-Subscription Access.


NEW QUESTION # 189
Which of the following best explains why sensitive data should be encrypted at rest on laptops?

Answer: D

Explanation:
Encryption at rest primarily protects the confidentiality of stored information when an unauthorized party obtains physical or logical access to the storage medium. This is particularly important for laptops because portable devices can be lost or stolen, giving an attacker possession of the disk outside the organization's normal network and endpoint protections.
NIST guidance on storage encryption specifically addresses laptops and other end-user devices and explains that storage encryption combines encryption and authentication to restrict unauthorized access to stored information. NIST further notes that threats involving lost or stolen end-user devices can expose information to unauthorized parties.
Encryption does not inherently prevent an authenticated and authorized user from copying information while the system is unlocked; data loss prevention controls are more directly suited to that objective. Regulatory requirements may mandate encryption in some environments, but compliance is an external requirement rather than the fundamental security reason encryption at rest exists. Option D confuses confidentiality with integrity and network protection. Encryption of data stored on a laptop is not primarily intended to validate whether network data has been modified.
The examination concept is the CIA triad: encryption primarily supports confidentiality , especially when physical possession of the storage device is lost.
Study Guide Reference: Security Operations # Data Protection # Encryption at Rest # Full-Disk Encryption
# Confidentiality # Lost/Stolen Endpoint Protection.


NEW QUESTION # 190
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