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APMG-International ISO-IEC-27001-Foundation Exam Overview:

Certification Vendor:	APMG-International
Exam Name:	ISO/IEC 27001 (2022) Foundation Exam
Exam Number:	ISO-IEC-27001-Foundation
Exam Duration:	60 minutes
Exam Format:	Multiple Choice
Exam Price:	~299 EUR
Related Certifications:	ISO/IEC 27001 Practitioner ISO/IEC 27001 Auditor
Certificate Validity Period:	No expiry
Available Languages:	German, Spanish, English, Chinese
Real Exam Qty:	40
Passing Score:	65% (26/40)
Sample Questions:	APMG-International ISO-IEC-27001-Foundation Sample Questions
Exam Way:	Online (proctored) or Paper-based
Pre Condition:	None. This is an entry-level certification.
Official Syllabus URL:	https://apmg-international.com/product/iso-27001-foundation

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APMG-International ISO-IEC-27001-Foundation Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 1	Information Management (IM): Information management (IM) encompasses the entire lifecycle of information within an organization—from its collection and storage to its distribution, use, and eventual archiving or disposal.
Topic 2	Framework Design: Framework design is the process of developing a reusable structural foundation that supports and guides the creation and organization of software systems.
Topic 3	Data Security: Data security refers to protecting digital information—such as that stored in databases or networks—from destruction, unauthorized access, or malicious attacks, ensuring confidentiality and integrity.
Topic 4	Cybersecurity: Cybersecurity, also known as IT security or computer security, involves safeguarding computer systems, networks, and data from unauthorized access, theft, damage, or disruption to ensure the integrity and availability of digital information.
Topic 5	Self Confidence: Self-confidence is the belief in one’s abilities, competence, and value, reflecting a sense of assurance and inner strength.

APMG-International ISO/IEC 27001 (2022) Foundation Exam Sample Questions (Q48-Q53):

NEW QUESTION # 48
Which clause requires management review?

A. Clause 10
B. Clause 5
C. Clause 9.3
D. Clause 7

Answer: C

Explanation:
Clause 9.3 requires top management to periodically review the ISMS. Management reviews assess performance, audit results, risks, opportunities, and resource needs to ensure the ISMS remains suitable, adequate, effective, and aligned with business goals.

NEW QUESTION # 49
According to ISO/IEC 27000, what is the definition of a threat?

A. The remaining risk after risk treatment
B. A security control
C. A potential cause of an unwanted incident which can result in harm to a system or organization
D. A weakness of an asset or control

Answer: C

Explanation:
A threat is any potential cause of an unwanted incident that may damage assets or disrupt business operations. It differs from a vulnerability, which is a weakness, and residual risk, which is the risk remaining after treatment.

NEW QUESTION # 50
Which action is a required response to an identified residual risk?

A. Top management shall delegate its treatment to risk owners
B. It shall be reviewed by the risk owner to consider acceptance
C. By default, it shall be controlled by information security awareness and training
D. The organization shall change practices to avoid the risk occurring

Answer: B

Explanation:
Clause 6.1.3 (e) specifies:
"The organization shall obtain risk owners' approval of the information security risk treatment plan and acceptance of the residual information security risks." This confirms that residual risks -- those remaining after risk treatment -- must be reviewed and formally accepted by the designated risk owner.

NEW QUESTION # 51
What is required to be reported by the Information security event reporting control?

A. Observed or suspected events
B. Information disclosure
C. Unauthorized access
D. Asset disposal

Answer: A

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27002:2022 standards:
Annex A, control 6.8 (Information security event reporting) specifies:
"Information security events should be reported through appropriate management channels as quickly as possible. The organization should require all employees and contractors to note and report any observed or suspected information security events." This wording confirms that the required reporting covers"observed or suspected events."Specific event types like information disclosure (A) or unauthorized access (B) are examples but not the broad requirement.
Asset disposal (C) is addressed separately under equipment lifecycle controls (Annex A.7.14).
Therefore, the verified correct answer isD: Observed or suspected events.

NEW QUESTION # 52
Which activity is a required element of information security risk identification?

A. Prioritize the risk for treatment
B. Consider the likelihood of the occurrence
C. Determine the risk owners
D. Determine the level of risk

Answer: C

Explanation:
Clause 6.1.2 defines the mandatory elements of risk assessment. Under risk identification, the standard requires: "identifies the information security risks:1) apply the information security risk assessment process to identify risks...; and2) identify the risk owners." By contrast, considering likelihood and determining levels of risk (options B and D) are part ofrisk analysis(6.1.2 d) "assess the realistic likelihood...";
"determine the levels of risk"), and prioritization for treatment (option C) is part ofrisk evaluation(6.1.2 e)
"prioritize the analysed risks for risk treatment"). Therefore, the specific activity that belongs torisk identificationis toidentify the risk owners. This sequencing is prescribed to ensure each risk has a designated owner responsible for decisions on treatment and acceptance downstream.

NEW QUESTION # 53
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