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EC-COUNCIL 312-38 Exam Syllabus Topics:

SectionWeightObjectives
Topic 1: Incident Detection10%- Traffic and log monitoring/analysis
- Alerting
- Baselining
- Triage
Topic 2: Application and Data Protection10%- Encryption basics
- Secure application practices
- Data security controls
Topic 3: Network Perimeter Protection10%- Segmentation
- Firewalls/IDS/IPS concepts
- Secure gateways
Topic 4: Endpoint Protection20%- Windows/Linux hardening
- Mobile/IoT security baselines and controls
Topic 5: Enterprise Virtual, Cloud, and Wireless Network Protection15%- Cloud security (IaaS/PaaS/SaaS)
- Wireless hardening
- Virtualization/container security
Topic 6: Incident Response and Forensic Investigation10%- Documentation
- Containment/eradication
- First responder steps
- Forensic touchpoints
Topic 7: Incident Prediction15%- Indicators (IoC/IoA)
- Attack surface analysis
- Threat intel (CTI)
- Risk management
Topic 8: Network Defense Management10%- Foundation of defense-in-depth
- Cyberattacks and defense strategies

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EC-COUNCIL EC-Council Certified Network Defender CND Sample Questions (Q97-Q102):

NEW QUESTION # 97
Which of the following UTP cables supports transmission up to 20MHz?

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 98
Which of the following is a mechanism that helps in ensuring that only the intended and authorized recipients are able to read data?

Answer: B

Explanation:
Confidentiality is a mechanism that ensures that only the intended and authorized recipients are able to read data. The data is so encrypted that even if an unauthorized user gets access to it, he will not get any meaning out of it.
Answer option A is incorrect. In information security, integrity means that data cannot be modified without authorization. This is not the same thing as referential integrity in databases. Integrity is violated when an employee accidentally or with malicious intent deletes important data files, when a computer virus infects a computer, when an employee is able to modify his own salary in a payroll database, when an unauthorized user vandalizes a web site, when someone is able to cast a very large number of votes in an online poll, and so on. There are many ways in which integrity could be violated without malicious intent. In the simplest case, a user on a system could mistype someone's address. On a larger scale, if an automated process is not written and tested correctly, bulk updates to a database could alter data in an incorrect way, leaving the integrity of the data compromised. Information security professionals are tasked with finding ways to implement controls that prevent errors of integrity.
Answer option B is incorrect. Data availability is one of the security principles that ensures that the data and communication services will be available for use when needed (expected). It is a method of describing products and services availability by which it is ensured that data continues to be available at a required level of performance in situations ranging from normal to disastrous. Data availability is achieved through redundancy, which depends upon where the data is stored and how it can be reached.
Answer option D is incorrect. Authentication is the act of establishing or confirming something (or someone) as authentic, i.e., the claims made by or about the subject are true ("authentification" is a variant of this word).


NEW QUESTION # 99
On which of the following OSI layers does the Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) work?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) is an encryption program that provides confidentiality, integrity, and authentication for data communication. PGP operates at the Application layer of the OSI model.
This is because it is used to encrypt and decrypt texts, emails, files, directories, and whole disk partitions and to enhance the security of email communications. PGP provides these services by utilizing cryptographic privacy and authentication through a hybrid approach that combines symmetric and asymmetric encryption, which is implemented at the Application layer.


NEW QUESTION # 100
Which protocol would the network administrator choose for the wireless network design. If he needs to satisfy the minimum requirement of 2.4 GHz, 22 MHz of bandwidth, 2 Mbits/s stream for data rate and use DSSS for modulation.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The 802.11b protocol is the correct choice for the network administrator to satisfy the specified requirements.
This protocol operates in the 2.4 GHz frequency band, uses Direct-Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS) for modulation, and provides a data rate of up to 11 Mbits/s, which is well above the minimum requirement of 2 Mbits/s. The 802.11b standard also uses a channel width of 22 MHz, which matches the given specification. It was designed to be backward compatible with the original 802.11 standard and is widely used due to its range and compatibility with many devices.
References:
* IEEE 802.11b-1999 standard documentation.
* Wireless LAN Medium Access Control (MAC) and Physical Layer (PHY) Specifications1.


NEW QUESTION # 101
The company has implemented a backup plan. James is working as a network administrator for the company and is taking full backups of the data every time a backup is initiated. Alex who is a senior security manager talks to him about using a differential backup instead and asks him to implement this once a full backup of the data is completed. What is/are the reason(s) Alex is suggesting that James use a differential backup? (Select all that apply)

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
Differential backups are advantageous because they only back up data that has changed since the last full backup. This means they require less storage space than taking a full backup every time, which can be significant as data accumulates over time. Additionally, differential backups are generally faster than full backups because they involve less data. This speed can be crucial for maintaining regular backup schedules without disrupting network operations. Lastly, because differential backups involve less data and take less time, they can be less expensive than full backups, considering the costs associated with storage and the time required for backup operations.


NEW QUESTION # 102
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