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| Certification Vendor: | ACDIS (Association of Clinical Documentation Integrity Specialists) |
|---|---|
| Exam Name: | ACDIS Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist – Outpatient (CCDS-O) Examination |
| Exam Number: | CCDS-O |
| Passing Score: | 85 out of 120 scored questions |
| Available Languages: | English |
| Related Certifications: | Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist (CCDS) |
| Exam Format: | Multiple-choice, Computer-based exam |
| Real Exam Qty: | 140 questions (120 scored) |
| Recommended Training: | ACDIS Official Certification Resources ACDIS CCDS-O Exam Candidate Handbook (download via official site) |
| Exam Registration: | ACDIS Certification Page CCDS-O Certification Information |
| Sample Questions: | ACDIS CCDS-O Sample Questions |
| Exam Way: | Computer-based testing via Prometric test centers or remote proctoring (ProProctor). |
| Pre Condition: | Must meet education and experience requirements (e.g., RN, MD, DO, or HIM/coding credential such as RHIA, RHIT, CCS, CPC, CRC, COC) plus approximately 1–2 years of outpatient clinical documentation experience using U.S. reimbursement systems. |
| Official Syllabus URL: | https://acdis.org/certification/ccds-o |
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NEW QUESTION # 108
An established patient is defined as one who has received professional services from the same or another physician or qualified healthcare professional from the exact same specialty and sub-specialty and belongs to the same group practice, within the past how many years?
Answer: D
Explanation:
For outpatient E/M reporting, "new vs. established patient" status is determined using a lookback period based on prior professional services. An established patient is one who has received face-to-face (or other qualifying professional) services from the same physician or another physician/qualified healthcare professional of the same specialty and subspecialty in the same group practice within the previous three years. This definition is critical for compliant coding because it drives which E/M code family is available (new patient codes vs established patient codes), and it affects relative valuation, documentation expectations, and audit risk. Outpatient CDI education emphasizes helping providers document the medical necessity and complexity of the visit regardless of patient status, but also ensuring correct administrative classification so coders select the correct code set. The three-year window prevents inappropriate use of new patient codes when the patient has an ongoing clinical relationship with the practice/specialty, supporting accurate reimbursement and consistent reporting.
NEW QUESTION # 109
Which entity is tasked by CMS to process both Part A and Part B beneficiary claims?
Answer: B
Explanation:
CMS assigns Medicare Administrative Contractors (MACs) to administer Medicare fee-for-service operations at the jurisdictional level, including processing and paying both Part A and Part B claims. In outpatient CDI terms, MACs are central because they apply Medicare coverage rules, edit logic, and payment policies that determine whether documentation supports medical necessity and correct coding for submitted claims. This includes adjudicating hospital outpatient (Part B) services and facility-based Part A services, handling provider enrollment functions, issuing Local Coverage Determinations (as applicable through their medical review processes), and responding to claim inquiries and appeals routing. By contrast, Recovery Audit Contractors (RACs) focus on identifying and recovering improper payments (post-payment auditing). Risk Adjustment Data Validation (RADV) contractors validate diagnosis data submitted for risk-adjusted programs (primarily Medicare Advantage), not routine FFS claim processing. Zone Program Integrity Contractors (ZPICs) (and their successors in some contexts) focus on program integrity and fraud/waste/abuse investigations rather than standard claim adjudication. Therefore, the entity responsible for processing Part A and Part B beneficiary claims is the MAC.
NEW QUESTION # 110
Which of the following best differentiates inpatient from outpatient coding guidelines?
Answer: D
Explanation:
A key distinction is that inpatient coding is tightly linked to MS-DRG assignment and inpatient-specific sequencing rules, including selection of the principal diagnosis using the "after study" standard and capture of secondary diagnoses that qualify as complications/comorbidities (CC/MCC) when they meet reporting criteria. This makes diagnosis sequencing and documentation of severity/acuity central to inpatient reimbursement and quality measurement. Outpatient coding does not use MS-DRGs; instead, it typically uses "first-listed" diagnosis concepts for the encounter and assigns ICD-10-CM based on conditions addressed that day, with procedure payment often driven by CPT/HCPCS and, in hospital outpatient departments, packaging/OPPS logic. Therefore, statement A is incorrect (principal diagnosis is not the outpatient focus), C is incorrect (there are meaningful differences), and D is incorrect because outpatient coding absolutely depends on encounter diagnoses being documented and supported. Outpatient CDI education stresses documenting the reason for visit, linking symptoms to confirmed conditions when known, and showing MEAT for chronic conditions so outpatient coding is accurate and defensible.
NEW QUESTION # 111
Which of the following is a provider benefit of a prospective query?
Answer: A
Explanation:
A prospective query is initiated early enough (before or during the visit workflow) so the provider can evaluate, assess, and document the condition in real time while the patient is present. This is a major provider benefit because it supports better clinical accuracy and completeness: the clinician can ask targeted questions, perform relevant exam elements, review results, and determine whether the condition is present, active, being monitored, or ruled out-then document the final clinical impression and plan. From an ACDIS outpatient CDI perspective, prospective querying improves efficiency and reduces retrospective "chart-chasing," late addenda, and documentation gaps that occur when clarification is requested after the encounter is closed. Importantly, prospective queries must remain non-leading and cannot direct the provider to a particular diagnosis (eliminating option A). They also cannot "guarantee" risk-adjusted capture because the diagnosis must be clinically supported and addressed (eliminating option B). Defining the purpose of the encounter is driven by the clinical reason for visit, not by CDI (eliminating option D).
NEW QUESTION # 112
An African American male enrolled in Medicaid has not been taking his blood pressure medication. Which of the following factors impacts this beneficiary's risk score?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Medicaid risk adjustment models generally calculate risk using two major categories of inputs: demographics and diagnosis data. Demographic factors commonly include gender and indicators tied to Medicaid status/eligibility (for example, eligibility category, dual status, disability-related eligibility, or other program qualifiers depending on the state/model). These demographic elements adjust expected cost and are foundational to the risk score even before considering diagnoses. By contrast, race is not a standard input for calculating Medicaid risk scores in typical risk adjustment methodologies, so options that include race are not supported. Likewise, "patient noncompliance" is primarily a clinical and quality-of-care issue and may affect treatment outcomes, but it is not itself a standard risk-score driver unless it is documented as a reportable, supported diagnosis that the specific model recognizes (and most models don't directly risk-adjust for nonadherence codes). Therefore, among the options given, Medicaid status and gender are the most clearly valid factors that impact the beneficiary's risk score.
NEW QUESTION # 113
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