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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Risk Analysis and Risk Management | - Business continuity and disaster recovery
|
| Cloud Security Policies and Procedures | - Cloud application security policies
|
| Secure Cloud Service Models | - Cloud architecture security
|
| Implementing Operational Capabilities, Procedures, and Training | - Security operations workflows
|
| Identity and Access Management | - Cloud IAM controls
|
| Legal, Compliance, and Ethical Concerns | - Compliance and governance
|
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NEW QUESTION # 119
Which document, commonly existing in an IT enterprise, can be used to speed up the process of identifying a potential cloud service provider (CSP)?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Entity relationship and data flow diagrams can significantly speed up the process of identifying a suitable cloud service provider. Managing Cloud guidance explains that these diagrams document how applications, systems, and data interact across the enterprise.
By understanding data sensitivity, integration points, trust boundaries, and workloads, organizations can quickly determine which cloud service models, security controls, and compliance capabilities are required from a CSP. This enables efficient evaluation and comparison of providers.
Physical plant blueprints and egress safety designs are facilities-related documents, while BCDR plans focus on recovery strategies rather than provider selection. Therefore, entity relationship and data flow diagrams are the most useful documents for accelerating CSP identification.
NEW QUESTION # 120
Which level of compliance is required by a cloud service provider to protect customer data at banks and insurance companies?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) requires cloud service providers to protect customer data for banks and insurance companies. Managing Cloud principles explain that GLBA applies to financial institutions and mandates safeguards to protect consumers' nonpublic personal information.
Cloud service providers supporting financial organizations must implement security controls that align with GLBA requirements, including data protection, risk management, and access controls. This ensures confidentiality and integrity of financial data stored or processed in the cloud.
IDEA governs education services, DMCA addresses digital copyright, and FERPA protects student education records. Therefore, GLBA is the correct compliance requirement.
NEW QUESTION # 121
Which security control could be implemented as part of a layered physical defense at a cloud hosting site?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Video surveillance capability is a key security control used as part of a layered physical defense at a cloud hosting site. Managing Cloud principles explain that physical security relies on multiple overlapping controls to deter, detect, and respond to unauthorized physical access.
Video surveillance provides continuous monitoring of data center facilities, including entrances, exits, server rooms, and perimeter boundaries. It acts as both a deterrent and a detection mechanism, enabling real-time observation and post-incident investigation. Surveillance footage supports incident response, forensic analysis, and compliance requirements.
Access control enforcement and multifactor authentication are primarily logical or administrative controls, while background checks are personnel security measures. Although important, they are not physical perimeter controls. Therefore, video surveillance capability is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 122
Which type of disaster recovery plan (DRP) test requires the whole organization to participate in a scheduled disaster scenario without performing all of the actual tasks?
Answer: A
Explanation:
A dry run disaster recovery plan test requires broad organizational participation in a simulated disaster scenario without executing all production-impacting tasks. Managing Cloud principles explain that dry run testing validates coordination, communication, and procedural readiness while avoiding the risks of full operational disruption.
In a dry run, teams follow documented recovery steps conceptually or in limited execution, verifying that dependencies, responsibilities, and sequencing are correct. This approach provides higher fidelity than tabletop exercises, which are discussion-based, while avoiding the operational risks of full or parallel tests.
Parallel tests involve running recovery systems alongside production, and full tests execute all recovery actions, often causing service disruption. Therefore, a dry run offers a balanced method to test preparedness across the organization without full execution.
NEW QUESTION # 123
Which risk may be faced by users when using software resources in the platform as a service (PaaS) cloud model?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Information bleed is a risk associated with the Platform as a Service (PaaS) cloud model. Managing Cloud principles explain that PaaS environments are inherently multi-tenant, with multiple customers sharing the same underlying platform components such as runtimes, databases, and middleware.
If isolation controls are weak or misconfigured, data from one tenant may inadvertently become accessible to another. This unintended exposure is referred to as information bleed and represents a significant confidentiality risk in shared environments.
Guest escape is primarily related to virtualization at the infrastructure layer, software interoperability is a functional concern, and web application security applies across all service models. Therefore, information bleed is the most relevant PaaS-specific risk.
NEW QUESTION # 124
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