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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Automation and Response | - Execute response actions
|
| Platform and Architecture | - Describe the architecture and deployment models
|
| Detection and Investigation | - Perform threat hunting and investigation
|
| Data Ingestion and Configuration | - Manage assets and identity mappings - Configure data sources for analysis
|
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NEW QUESTION # 125
A large enterprise is migrating some internal applications to a cloud-based Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) model and implementing a SASE architecture leveraging Palo Alto Networks Prisma Access. They are encountering issues with the correct identification and enforcement of policies for a specific custom internal web application that now runs on a standard HTTPS port (443) alongside other legitimate SaaS traffic. The security team needs to ensure this custom application is identified separately from general 'web-browsing' and enforce specific QOS and security profiles on it.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Identifying custom or less common applications running on standard ports is a key use case for App-ID's custom application signature capabilities. Option A correctly describes the process: create a custom App-ID signature that looks for unique attributes of the application traffic (like specific HTTP headers, URL patterns, or payload content that identifies it as the custom app), and then use this custom App-ID in security policies to apply granular control and inspection. Option B is incorrect because modifying default signatures is not possible or recommended. Option C is incorrect; Content-ID focuses on threats and sensitive data within applications, not the identification of the application itself. App-ID is required for application identification and policy enforcement. Option D is a workaround using URL filtering but doesn't provide true application-level identification and control based on App-ID. Option E is impractical and defeats the purpose of a unified SASE architecture like Prisma Access.
NEW QUESTION # 126
Palo Alto Networks periodically releases new versions of the Prisma Access software and security features. Which of the following statements accurately describe how these updates and upgrades are communicated and managed for customers? (Select all that apply)
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
Prisma Access updates are managed by Palo Alto Networks with a focus on transparency and minimal impact. - Option A (Correct): Palo Alto Networks provides advance notification of scheduled maintenance and upgrades for Prisma Access to allow customers to prepare and plan. - Option B (Correct): Updates are deployed incrementally across the global infrastructure to reduce risk and avoid widespread disruption. This phased approach minimizes the chance of a single issue affecting all users simultaneously. - Option C (Incorrect): While customers have control over configuring security policies and features applied to their traffic, they do not typically have control over approving or deferring the underlying software updates of the Prisma Access infrastructure nodes themselves; this is managed by Palo Alto Networks to ensure the platform remains secure and up-to-date. - Option D (Correct): A primary goal of the update process is high availability. Updates are engineered to be performed with minimal or zero impact on user sessions and overall service availability. - Option E (Incorrect): Software upgrades for Prisma Access processing nodes are handled entirely by Palo Alto Networks, the customer does not download or install the software.
NEW QUESTION # 127
A company is using Palo Alto Networks GlobalProtect to provide secure remote access for its mobile workforce. With a Premium GlobalProtect license, they want to gain deeper visibility into the security posture of endpoints connecting to the network and enforce policy based on endpoint compliance. Which feature, part of the Premium GlobalProtect offering, collects endpoint attributes and sends them to the firewall to enable compliance-based access control?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Premium GlobalProtect includes the Host Information Profile (HIP) feature. HIP allows the GlobalProtect agent on the endpoint to collect detailed information about the device's security posture (e.g., OS version, patch status, antivirus installed and updated, disk encryption status, running processes). This information is sent to the GlobalProtect gateway (on the NGFW or Prisma Access), where it's evaluated against configured HIP Objects and Profiles, which can then be used as criteria in Security Policy rules to grant or deny access based on compliance. Option A (User-ID) identifies the user. Option C (App-ID) identifies applications. Option D (Cortex XDR) provides endpoint detection and response. Option E (Data Filtering) inspects content for sensitive data.
NEW QUESTION # 128
A security team is investigating an alert from their Palo Alto Networks NGFW indicating a critical severity vulnerability exploit attempt against an internal server. The alert references a specific CVE ID and signature name. Which of the following capabilities or integrations, provided or enhanced by the Advanced Threat Prevention CDSS, contribute to the firewall's ability to detect and prevent such zero-day or rapidly evolving exploit attempts? (Select all that apply)
Answer: A,B,C,E
Explanation:
Advanced Threat Prevention leverages cloud intelligence and advanced techniques to stay ahead of evolving threats. - Option A (Correct): A key benefit of CDSS like ATP is the rapid distribution of newly developed signatures from the cloud intelligence platform to subscribed firewalls, providing timely protection against the latest vulnerabilities and exploits. - Option B (Correct): Advanced Threat Prevention includes behavioral analysis capabilities (often leveraging cloud-trained models) that can detect exploit techniques or malicious patterns even if they don't precisely match a static signature, helping against zero-day or mutated attacks. - Option C (Correct): Advanced ATP incorporates machine learning models (often trained and updated in the cloud) to improve detection of novel exploit methods and evasive techniques that signature- based methods might miss. - Option D (Correct): Threat Prevention profiles can integrate dynamic threat intelligence feeds (cloud-delivered) listing known malicious IPs or domains associated with attack campaigns, allowing the firewall to block connections to/from these indicators. - Option E (Incorrect): Blocking based solely on port/protocol is insufficient for exploit prevention; attackers can use non-standard ports or tunnel attacks within legitimate traffic. Deep inspection by Threat Prevention is required.
NEW QUESTION # 129
From a customer's perspective, which aspect of managing security posture and feature availability in Prisma Access is directly influenced by the underlying software version running on the security processing nodes?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The software version determines the fundamental capabilities of the platform. - Option A: Dynamic updates provide the latest intelligence but the types of signatures and updates available are determined by the software version. - Option B (Correct): Just like with PAN-OS on self-managed firewalls, major software version upgrades in Prisma Access unlock new features, introduce new policy options, add support for new protocols or decryption standards, and may include performance optimizations or bug fixes to existing features. The software version dictates the capabilities available to the customer. - Option C: Performance capacity is primarily determined by the allocated bandwidth and the underlying hardware/virtual resources provisioned by Palo Alto Networks, not the software version itself. - Option D: Geographic location is a deployment choice. - Option E: The number of users is a factor managed by licensing and bandwidth allocation, not directly by the underlying software version itself.
NEW QUESTION # 130
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