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ACDIS CCDS Exam Syllabus Topics:

SectionWeightObjectives
Topic 1: Communication skills9.17%- CDI and coding roles and interdisciplinary collaboration
- Physician education and effective communication
Topic 2: Healthcare regulations, reimbursement, and documentation requirements related to the IPPS12.5%- CC/MCC, CMI, Medicare contractors, and compliance
- IPPS, MS-DRGs, reimbursement, and medical necessity
Topic 3: Professionalism, ethics, and compliance9.17%- Confidentiality, DRG compliance, and ethical CDI practices
- Query compliance, DRG creep, and audit risks
Topic 4: Medical record documentation19.17%- Documentation requirements and diagnosis or procedure code assignment
- Documentation clarification and compliant physician queries
Topic 5: Anatomy and physiology, pathophysiology, pharmacology, and medical terminology19.17%- Anatomy, physiology, pathophysiology, pharmacology, and terminology
- Clinical conditions and clinical indicators
Topic 6: Impact of reportable diagnoses on quality of care8.33%- Mortality, severity of illness, and risk of mortality
- Quality metrics, reporting programs, and financial impact
Topic 7: Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting14.17%- Principal and secondary diagnosis assignment
- Coding guidelines, AHA Coding Clinic, HACs, and POA indicators
Topic 8: Healthcare facility CDI program analysis8.33%- CDI productivity, provider response, CMI, and program metrics
- Data analysis, forecasting, and performance measurement

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ACDIS Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist Sample Questions (Q125-Q130):

NEW QUESTION # 125
A patient without chronic hypercapnia develops severe respiratory distress. ABG results are pH 7.19, PaCO#
74 mmHg, and PaO# 60 mmHg. The patient requires emergent BiPAP. Which condition is MOST strongly supported for clarification?

Answer: B

Explanation:
The findings strongly support clarification of acute hypercapnic respiratory failure. PaCO# of 74 mmHg represents marked carbon dioxide retention, while pH 7.19 demonstrates significant respiratory acidemia. The patient is also hypoxemic and requires urgent noninvasive ventilatory assistance.
Because there is no documented chronic hypercapnic baseline, the available information primarily supports an acute process rather than chronic respiratory failure.
Acute hypercapnia occurs when alveolar ventilation becomes insufficient to eliminate carbon dioxide.
Potential causes include COPD or asthma exacerbation, central nervous system depression, neuromuscular weakness, obesity hypoventilation, airway obstruction, or severe fatigue.
BiPAP provides positive-pressure ventilatory support and can improve alveolar ventilation, decrease work of breathing, and lower PaCO#.
The CDI specialist should not independently establish respiratory failure solely from an ABG. However, the combination of severe physiologic abnormality, respiratory distress, and escalation to BiPAP supplies a strong basis for provider clarification when no corresponding diagnosis is documented.
Metabolic alkalosis would ordinarily involve primary bicarbonate elevation with alkalemia rather than profound respiratory acidemia.
CCDS Reference Topics: Acute respiratory failure; hypercapnia; ABG interpretation; noninvasive ventilation; clinical indicators.
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NEW QUESTION # 126
Under the IPPS Post-Acute Care Transfer policy, which documentation element is particularly important because it can affect whether transfer-payment methodology applies?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Accurate discharge disposition is critical to application of the Post-Acute Care Transfer policy because the patient's destination after the acute inpatient stay can determine whether transfer-payment methodology applies.
Qualifying discharges to certain post-acute settings can be subject to transfer-payment rules when other criteria are met. These settings can include skilled nursing facilities and other specified post-acute arrangements, depending on applicable CMS requirements and the MS-DRG involved.
Therefore, an incorrectly documented discharge destination can affect reimbursement even when the diagnoses, procedures, and MS-DRG are otherwise accurate.
The PACT concept demonstrates why CDI and coding accuracy extend beyond diagnosis capture. The inpatient claim also relies on accurate demographic, procedural, discharge-status, and utilization information.
Dietary preference, physician experience, and the number of daily progress notes do not determine whether PACT methodology applies.
CDI specialists should recognize when conflicting documentation exists regarding whether a patient went home, to skilled nursing, rehabilitation, another acute facility, hospice, or another destination and collaborate with the appropriate departments to ensure the final record accurately reflects the actual disposition.
CCDS Reference Topics: PACT; discharge disposition; IPPS transfer rules; reimbursement; data integrity.
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NEW QUESTION # 127
A CDI program plans to develop a policy for addressing diagnoses that require clinical validation. According to the Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice, which of the following should be addressed in the policy?

Answer: C

Explanation:
A compliant clinical-validation process should include a defined escalation process. The AHIMA/ACDIS query guidance specifically recommends organizational query policies that address escalation when a query remains unanswered or when documentation and clinical-validation concerns cannot be resolved through the ordinary workflow. Escalation may involve CDI or coding leadership, a physician advisor, the chief medical officer, or other designated personnel according to organizational policy.
Option A is inappropriate because simply coding every documented diagnosis without addressing significant clinical-support concerns undermines data integrity and increases denial and compliance risk. Option B is also too absolute. Coding professionals cannot independently substitute their clinical judgment for that of the responsible provider; unclear or potentially unsupported diagnoses should be addressed through an established clarification and validation process. Option D is incorrect because queries may appropriately occur concurrently or retrospectively depending on the circumstances and organizational workflow.
The goal of clinical validation is not to force removal or confirmation of a diagnosis. It is to ensure that the provider has an opportunity to clarify whether the diagnosis accurately represents the patient's clinical condition and to document supporting reasoning where appropriate.
CCDS Reference Topics: Professionalism, ethics, and compliance; clinical validation; compliant query policies; escalation procedures.
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NEW QUESTION # 128
A patient is admitted with right-sided weakness and aphasia. MRI confirms an acute left cerebral infarction.
Two days later, aphasia resolves but right-sided weakness remains. The physician's documentation continues to state "TIA." What should the CDI specialist do?

Answer: D

Explanation:
The record contains a significant clinical-documentation discrepancy. A TIA is characterized by transient neurologic dysfunction without acute infarction, whereas this patient's MRI demonstrates an acute cerebral infarction and the patient continues to have a persistent focal neurologic deficit.
Therefore, the provider should be asked to clarify the final diagnosis.
The CDI specialist cannot independently replace TIA with cerebral infarction, even though the clinical findings strongly favor an infarction. Provider documentation must reconcile the diagnostic evidence.
Automatically reporting both conditions could also misrepresent the encounter when one diagnosis has effectively been superseded by subsequent findings.
The query should objectively present the initial TIA documentation, MRI-confirmed infarction, persistent right-sided weakness, and resolution of aphasia, then ask the physician to clarify the final neurologic diagnosis.
This scenario illustrates why concurrent CDI review must continue beyond initial admission documentation.
Early diagnoses may evolve as diagnostic testing becomes available.
Accurate stroke documentation affects principal diagnosis, severity representation, rehabilitation planning, risk adjustment, quality reporting, and longitudinal patient history.
CCDS Reference Topics: Cerebral infarction; TIA; imaging; conflicting documentation; diagnostic evolution.
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NEW QUESTION # 129
Based on the AHIMA/ACDIS Practice Brief Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice, a leading query is one that:

Answer: B

Explanation:
A query becomes problematic when it directs or influences the provider toward a diagnosis that is not supported by the patient's clinical record. Therefore, option C most accurately represents the leading-query concept in this answer set. A compliant query must be based on patient-specific clinical indicators and must preserve the provider's independent clinical judgment.
A multiple-choice query may include a diagnosis not previously documented when that diagnosis is supported by the clinical indicators and when reasonable alternatives are also offered. ACDIS/AHIMA guidance has specifically recognized that presenting a clinically supported new diagnosis among neutral choices does not automatically make the query leading.
Likewise, the timing of a query while a provider is documenting does not make it leading. Cause-and-effect clarification may also be addressed using an appropriate query format when both conditions are documented and the relationship remains uncertain.
The current 2026 ACDIS/AHIMA Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice supersede the prior versions and continue to establish compliant provider-query practice as a foundational CDI standard. Queries must be clinically supported, noncoercive, and constructed without reference to reimbursement or other desired outcomes.
CCDS Reference Topics: Leading queries; clinical indicators; compliant query construction; provider independence.
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NEW QUESTION # 130
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