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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Cloud Infrastructure and Platform Security | 20% | - Network security: segmentation, firewalls, WAFs - Application security in cloud environments - Compute and virtualization security - Storage security and protection |
| Security Operations and Incident Response | 10% | - Disaster recovery and business continuity - Threat detection and vulnerability management - Incident response planning and execution |
| Cloud Data Security | 20% | - Data privacy and compliance requirements - Key management and secrets protection - Data classification and lifecycle management - Encryption: at rest, in transit, in use |
| Governance, Risk, and Compliance | 10% | - Risk assessment and management - Audit, logging, and monitoring - Compliance with regulations (GDPR, HIPAA, PCI DSS) |
| Identity and Access Management (IAM) | 20% | - Identity providers and federation - Authentication, authorization, and accounting - Zero Trust architecture principles - Least privilege and separation of duties |
| Cloud Security Principles and Concepts | 20% | - Shared responsibility model - Cloud deployment models: public, private, hybrid, multi-cloud - Security frameworks and standards (NIST, ISO 27001, CSA) - Cloud service models: IaaS, PaaS, SaaS |
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NEW QUESTION # 86
Which aspect of strong authentication is part of enterprise risk management?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Privileged user management is a critical aspect of strong authentication within enterprise risk management.
Managing Cloud guidance explains that privileged accounts have elevated access to systems, data, and configurations, making them high-value targets for attackers.
Enterprise risk management requires identifying, protecting, and monitoring these accounts through strong authentication mechanisms such as multi-factor authentication, session monitoring, and just-in-time access.
Controlling privileged access reduces the risk of insider threats, credential compromise, and unauthorized system changes.
Federated identities support access integration, entitlement consideration relates to authorization, and distributed organizations describe structure rather than authentication strength. Therefore, privileged user management is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 87
Which tool should a developer use to describe the requirements they have gathered for a code improvement they are tasked with making as part of a current release?
Answer: B
Explanation:
In Agile development,user storiesare the standard way to capture requirements for new features or improvements. A user story describes the functionality from the perspective of the end user, ensuring that development aligns with business needs.
"Cases" might refer to test cases, which validate requirements, but they are not used to describe them.
Cookies are technical elements for web sessions, and notes are informal documentation.
User stories typically follow a format such as:"As a [role], I want [goal] so that [benefit]."This provides clarity, fosters communication between developers and stakeholders, and ensures that acceptance criteria can be defined and tested. Using stories as a requirement tool aligns with iterative, customer-focused release cycles.
NEW QUESTION # 88
Which group should be notified for approval when a planned modification to an environment is scheduled?
Answer: B
Explanation:
TheChange Management Board (CMB), also called the Change Advisory Board (CAB), is the formal authority responsible for reviewing, assessing, and approving planned modifications to IT environments. This group ensures that proposed changes align with business objectives, do not introduce unnecessary risks, and comply with security and regulatory requirements.
Event management teams focus on monitoring events, problem management teams handle root-cause analysis, and executive boards provide strategic direction but are not operational approval authorities. Only the CMB has the explicit role of validating technical and security implications before implementation.
By involving the CMB, organizations enforce structured governance, minimize disruptions, and establish accountability. This practice is central in ITIL and ISO/IEC 20000 standards, ensuring that operational integrity and security are preserved during change cycles.
NEW QUESTION # 89
In most redundant array of independent disks (RAID) configurations, data is stored across different disks.
Which method of storing data is described?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The method described isstriping, which is a technique used in RAID configurations to improve performance and distribute risk. Striping involves splitting data into smaller segments and writing those segments across multiple disks simultaneously. For example, if a file is divided into four parts, each part is written to a separate disk in the RAID array.
This parallelism enhances input/output (I/O) performance because multiple drives can be accessed at once. It also provides resilience depending on the RAID level. While striping by itself (RAID 0) increases performance but not redundancy, when combined with mirroring or parity (e.g., RAID 5 or RAID 10), it offers both speed and fault tolerance.
The purpose of striping in the data management context is to optimize how data is stored, accessed, and protected. It is fundamentally different from archiving, mapping, or crypto-shredding, as those serve different objectives (long-term storage, logical placement, or secure deletion). Striping is central to high-performance storage systems and supports availability in mission-critical environments.
NEW QUESTION # 90
After creating a backup set, an engineer stores the backups according to company policy. Which action should the engineer take periodically to ensure the backed-up data is viable?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Backups are only valuable if they can be successfully restored when needed. Testing backups on a periodic basis is the only reliable way to validate their viability. Simply storing backups without testing may create a false sense of security, because corruption, misconfiguration, or incomplete backup sets can go unnoticed until a disaster occurs.
Industry best practices, such as those recommended by NIST and ISO 27031, emphasize regular backup testing as part of disaster recovery and business continuity planning. Testing involves restoring data to a test environment, verifying its integrity, and ensuring that applications can use the restored data as expected.
Deleting, comparing, or replacing backups might help in managing storage efficiency, but these actions do not confirm whether the backups are usable. Periodic testing ensures alignment with company policy, regulatory requirements, and internal risk management controls. It also provides confidence to management that recovery objectives, such as RTO (Recovery Time Objective) and RPO (Recovery Point Objective), can be met.
NEW QUESTION # 91
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