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AAPC CPC Exam Overview:

Certification Vendor:AAPC
Exam Name:Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam
Exam Number:CPC
Related Certifications:CPC-A
Exam Format:Multiple Choice
Exam Price:USD 499
Real Exam Qty:100
Available Languages:English
Passing Score:70%
Certificate Validity Period:2 Years (requires continuing education to maintain)
Exam Duration:240 minutes
Sample Questions:AAPC CPC Sample Questions
Exam Way:Online (Online Proctored or In-Person at Testing Centers)
Pre Condition:None required for exam (though AAPC recommends medical terminology/anatomy training)
Official Syllabus URL:https://www.aapc.com/certification/cpc

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AAPC CPC Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Urinary System and Male Genital System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and assesses understanding of procedures on kidneys, bladder, ureters, prostate, and male reproductive organs. Proper use of CPT codes for surgical and diagnostic interventions is tested.
Topic 2
  • Female Reproductive System and Maternity Care & Delivery: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and evaluates coding accuracy for gynecological and obstetric procedures. It includes deliveries, antepartum care, cesarean sections, and surgical procedures involving female reproductive anatomy.
Topic 3
  • Review of Anatomy: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers a high-level understanding of human anatomy. It includes organs, systems, directional terminology, and anatomical locations, enabling coders to link procedures and diagnoses to the correct bodily structures with accuracy and consistency.
Topic 4
  • Respiratory System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and evaluates the ability to code procedures involving the nose, sinuses, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Attention is given to services like endoscopies, excisions, and resections within the respiratory tract.
Topic 5
  • Accurate ICD-10-CM Coding: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and focuses on the precise assignment of diagnosis codes using the ICD-10-CM system. The goal is to ensure accurate representation of patient conditions, proper sequencing, and a clear linkage between diagnoses and services.
Topic 6
  • Integumentary System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and covers procedures related to the skin and related structures. Topics include excisions, biopsies, repairs, and destruction services, focusing on accurate code selection and modifier usage for integumentary interventions.
Topic 7
  • The Business of Medicine: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and covers foundational knowledge regarding the healthcare system, reimbursement models, insurance payers, HIPAA compliance, and the ethical responsibilities coders hold within clinical and billing environments. It establishes the context in which coding decisions directly affect healthcare operations and financial outcomes.
Topic 8
  • Hemic & Lymphatic Systems, Mediastinum, Diaphragm: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and includes procedures related to the spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow, as well as surgical interventions in the mediastinum and diaphragm. Coders must differentiate procedures by region and system accurately.
Topic 9
  • Endocrine System and Nervous System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and assesses the ability to assign codes for surgeries involving glands, the brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves. Procedures like resections and electrical stimulation are part of the evaluated content.
Topic 10
  • Applying the ICD-10-CM Guidelines: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers how to apply official ICD-10-CM guidelines to real-world coding scenarios. It emphasizes the hierarchy of instructional notes, general and chapter-specific rules, and how to make judgment calls within compliant coding frameworks.
Topic 11
  • Pathology & Laboratory: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and includes lab tests, specimen analysis, and pathological examination procedures. It ensures that coders understand how to apply codes for chemistry panels, cultures, and histopathological diagnostics.
Topic 12
  • Musculoskeletal System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and focuses on coding procedures involving bones, joints, muscles, and tendons. It covers surgeries, reductions, arthroscopies, and fracture treatments, emphasizing accurate mapping of procedures to anatomical areas.
Topic 13
  • Evaluation & Management Services: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers office visits, hospital care, consultations, and other E
  • M services. It tests the understanding of time-based coding, medical decision-making, and history
  • exam components per current CMS guidelines.
Topic 14
  • Digestive System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and evaluates the coding of surgeries and procedures involving the oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, intestines, liver, pancreas, and related organs. Understanding endoscopic procedures is particularly critical here.
Topic 15
  • Introduction to CPT®, HCPCS Level II, and Modifiers: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and introduces candidates to CPT® coding for procedures, HCPCS Level II for supplies and services, and the correct use of modifiers. It helps learners distinguish between different code sets and understand their place in medical billing.

AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Sample Questions (Q250-Q255):

NEW QUESTION # 250
A patient presents to the emergency room with a nosebleed that is controlled by limited anterior nasal packing.
What CPT code is reported?

Answer: A

Explanation:
30901 = Control of anterior epistaxis, limited, any method
30903/30905/30906 are for extensive packing or posterior epistaxis


NEW QUESTION # 251
The human shoulder is made of which three bones?

Answer: C

Explanation:
The human shoulder is composed of three main bones: the clavicle (collarbone), scapula (shoulder blade), and humerus (upper arm bone). These bones form the shoulder joint, which is one of the most flexible and mobile joints in the human body, allowing for a wide range of motion.
AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year), Musculoskeletal System section.


NEW QUESTION # 252
A patient with a history of chronic venous embolism in the inferior vena cava has a radiographic study to visualize any abnormalities. In outpatient surgery the physician accesses the subclavian vein and the catheter is advanced to the inferior vena cava for injection and imaging. The supervision and interpretation of the images is performed by the physician.
What codes are reported for this procedure?

Answer: B

Explanation:
For the procedure involving access to the subclavian vein and advancing a catheter to the inferior vena cava for injection and imaging, the following codes are used:
* 36010 for the catheter placement.
* 75825-26 for the supervision and interpretation of the imaging.
Modifier -26 indicates the professional component of the radiological supervision and interpretation.
References:
* AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year)
* ICD-10-CM (current year)


NEW QUESTION # 253
A witness of a traffic accident called 911. An ambulance with emergency basic life support arrived at the scene of the accident. The injured party was stabilized and taken to the hospital. What HCPCS Level II coding is reported for the ambulance's service?

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 254
An 8-year-old patient is placed under general anesthesia for treatment of a right orbital fracture due to a traumatic fall to the nose and face from a swing set. An on-call otolaryngologist is asked to perform a general otolaryngologic examination to evaluate the patient. A mild nasal fracture is the diagnosis given by the otolaryngologist.
What is the CPT and ICD-10-CM coding for the otolaryngologist's services?

Answer: B

Explanation:
1. Procedure and CPT Code Selection:
The otolaryngologist was asked to perform a general otolaryngologic examination of the patient under general anesthesia to evaluate for injuries sustained from a traumatic fall.
CPT Code 92502 is appropriate for a general otolaryngologic examination under general anesthesia. This code is used specifically when an ENT examination is performed under anesthesia, as was the case here.
2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:
Code 92512 is for nasal function studies, such as rhinomanometry, which does not apply to a general otolaryngologic examination.
Code 21310 is for the treatment of a nasal fracture (closed treatment), which would only be appropriate if the otolaryngologist had performed a fracture reduction or repair. Since only an examination was performed, 21310 is not appropriate.
Code 92502-51 (option B) is incorrect because the -51 modifier (multiple procedures) is unnecessary; only a single examination was performed.
3. ICD-10-CM Code:
Since only the examination was performed and not treatment, the ICD-10-CM code for nasal fracture (likely S02.2XXA for unspecified fracture of the nasal bones, initial encounter) would be reported separately by the facility or based on final documentation.
4. AAPC and CPT Coding Guidelines:
AAPC guidelines support the use of 92502 for general ENT examinations performed under anesthesia, especially in cases of trauma evaluation without surgical intervention.
Therefore, the correct answer is D. 92502.


NEW QUESTION # 255
......

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