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CompTIA CS0-004 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Section	Weight	Objectives
Topic 1: Incident Response and Management	24%	- Incident Response Process 1. Detection 2. Containment 3. Eradication 4. Preparation 5. Post-incident activities 6. Recovery 7. Analysis - Incident Response Techniques 1. Timeline, severity, impact, and prioritization 2. Incident response and communication plans 3. Log collection, correlation, and enrichment 4. Restoration 5. Isolation and escalation 6. Training and exercises 7. Corrective action development 8. Remediation and verification 9. Evidence gathering and preservation 10. Playbooks and roles 11. Root cause analysis 12. Alerts, notifications, and triage - Attack Methodology Frameworks 1. Cyber Kill Chain 2. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis 3. MITRE ATT&CK
Topic 2: Vulnerability Management	26%	- Control Types, Risks, and Vulnerability Management 1. Risk concepts 2. Risk management strategies 3. Control types 4. Policies, governance, and service-level objectives 5. Control functions 6. Application security 7. Third-party risk - Vulnerability Scanning Methods 1. Scan types 2. Discovery 3. Planning considerations 4. Asset inventory 5. Security baseline scanning - Vulnerability Prioritization and Mitigation 1. Context awareness 2. Scoring methods 3. Vulnerability prioritization criteria 4. Mitigation strategies 5. Validation of remediation - Vulnerability Assessment Tools 1. Cloud infrastructure assessment tools 2. Vulnerability scanners 3. Breach attack simulation tools 4. Multipurpose tools 5. Web application scanners 6. Network scanning and mapping
Topic 3: Reporting and Communication	16%	- Security Operations and Incident Response Reporting and Communication 1. Incident declaration and escalation 2. Communication plan 3. Executive summary 4. Metrics and key performance indicators 5. Shift and incident handover 6. Operational security awareness 7. Internal threat intelligence report 8. Post-incident reporting - Vulnerability Management Reporting and Communication 1. Vulnerability scan reports 2. Metrics and key performance indicators 3. Compliance findings 4. Action plans 5. Risk scorecards 6. Inhibitors to remediation 7. Stakeholder identification and communication
Topic 4: Security Operations	34%	- Artificial Intelligence in Security Operations 1. AI risks 2. AI use cases 3. AI governance - Tools for Determining Malicious Activity 1. Pattern recognition and suspicious command analysis 2. User and entity behavior analysis 3. Endpoint security 4. Domain and IP reputation 5. Packet analysis 6. Sandboxing 7. Decoding and parsing 8. Log analysis and SIEM 9. File analysis 10. Programming and scripting languages 11. Email analysis 12. Threat intelligence platforms 13. File formats - Efficiency and Process Improvement in Security Operations 1. Standardize processes 2. Data enrichment 3. Streamline operations 4. Technology and tool integration 5. Automation and orchestration - Indicators of Potential Malicious Activity 1. Email-related attacks 2. Identity-based indicators 3. Network-related indicators 4. Host-related indicators 5. Application-related indicators 6. Cloud-related indicators 7. Social engineering attacks 8. Unauthorized configuration - Threat Intelligence and Threat Hunting 1. Collection methods and sources 2. Cyber deception 3. Indicators of compromise 4. Confidence-level impacts 5. Threat mapping 6. Threat modeling 7. Tactics, techniques, and procedures 8. Threat actors - System and Network Architecture in Security Operations 1. Data protection concepts 2. Infrastructure and system architecture concepts 3. Critical infrastructure concepts 4. Network architecture concepts 5. Identity and access management 6. Logging concepts 7. Encryption techniques 8. Device management concepts 9. Operating system concepts

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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q67-Q72):

NEW QUESTION # 67
Which of the following is a reason an executive summary is important for incident response communication?

A. It provides a detailed explanation of the incident.
B. It is included as part of privacy disclosure statements.
C. It uses quantifiable metrics to identify the root cause.
D. It is a concise way for the leadership team to understand the event.

Answer: D

Explanation:
An executive summary provides a brief, high-level overview of the incident so leadership and nontechnical stakeholders can quickly understand what happened, the impact on the organization, and the current status of the response without needing to review detailed technical information.

NEW QUESTION # 68
A security analyst reviews the public-facing attack surface of a network that contains both Windows and Linux servers. Which of the following commands is the best way to identify the services running?

A. nmap -sV -pl-1024 -iL hosts.txt
B. nmap -O -p- -iL hosts.txt
C. nmap -sn -vvvv -iL hosts.txt
D. nmap -sP -A -iL hosts.txt

Answer: A

Explanation:
Service version detection is required to identify which services are running on hosts. The command includes the service scan option and targets a range of ports, allowing the analyst to enumerate active services and their versions across the listed hosts.

NEW QUESTION # 69
An analyst receives the following output:

Which of the following is the correct number of discovered systems that are allowing unencrypted traffic?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

Answer: B

Explanation:
TCP port 80 carries unencrypted HTTP traffic and is open on 10.203.20.15 and 10.203.20.10.
SSH on port 22 and HTTPS on port 443 are encrypted.

NEW QUESTION # 70
An analyst is configuring a security information and event management system to capture fileless malware execution events.
Which of the following log files requires additional configuration to accomplish this task?

A. Microsoft-Windows-UserPnp/DeviceInstall
B. Microsoft-Windows-PowerShell/Operational
C. Microsoft-Windows-TerminalServices-LocalSessionManager/Operational
D. Microsoft-Windows-Crypto-DPAPI/Operational

Answer: B

Explanation:
The Microsoft-Windows-PowerShell/Operational log is the appropriate source because PowerShell is commonly involved in script-based and memory-oriented attack activity, including techniques associated with fileless malware. The key requirement in the question is "requires additional configuration": advanced PowerShell telemetry such as Script Block Logging must be enabled to provide the detailed execution visibility required by a SIEM.
Microsoft documents that enabling Script Block Logging causes PowerShell to record processed commands, functions, scripts, and script blocks in the Microsoft-Windows-PowerShell/Operational channel. In Windows PowerShell, Script Block Logging generates Event ID 4104 , which contains script-block content and can provide valuable evidence when investigating malicious PowerShell execution. Microsoft also specifically identifies malicious PowerShell scripts as a post-exploitation technique associated with fileless attack activity.
The DPAPI operational log concerns cryptographic data-protection activity. UserPnp/DeviceInstall relates to device installation events, while TerminalServices-LocalSessionManager provides Remote Desktop and terminal-session telemetry. Those sources can be valuable during investigations but are not the primary log channel for capturing PowerShell-based fileless execution.
Study Guide Reference: Security Operations # Logging and Monitoring # Windows Event Logs # PowerShell Logging # Event ID 4104 # Script Block Logging # Fileless Malware Detection.

NEW QUESTION # 71
An analyst needs to perform a baseline security evaluation of the company's cloud infrastructure.
Which of the following tools is most appropriate for this task?

A. Nikto
B. Metasploit
C. ScoutSuite
D. Open Vulnerability Assessment Scanner (OpenVAS)

Answer: C

Explanation:
ScoutSuite is specifically designed for security posture assessment of cloud environments, making it the best tool for establishing a cloud-security baseline. NCC Group describes ScoutSuite as an open-source, multi- cloud security-auditing tool that uses cloud-provider APIs to collect configuration information and identify risk areas across cloud environments.
This capability is fundamentally different from conventional host or web vulnerability scanning. A cloud baseline requires evaluation of configurations such as identity permissions, storage exposure, network controls, encryption settings, logging, cloud-native security services, and resource policies. ScoutSuite queries the cloud control plane and produces an organized view of configuration weaknesses that can be compared with security expectations.
OpenVAS is primarily a general-purpose vulnerability-assessment scanner for systems and network services.
Nikto concentrates on web-server weaknesses and dangerous configurations. Metasploit is primarily an exploitation and penetration-testing framework. Although each has legitimate assessment uses, none is as directly suited to broad cloud configuration posture assessment as ScoutSuite.
The critical examination distinction is cloud configuration auditing versus traditional vulnerability scanning or exploitation .
Study Guide Reference: Vulnerability Management # Cloud Vulnerability Assessment # Configuration Baselines # ScoutSuite # Cloud APIs # Security Posture Assessment # Misconfiguration Identification.

NEW QUESTION # 72
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