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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Threat Detection and Response | 20% | - Automated threat remediation - Incident response workflows - Real-time threat blocking - Forensic data collection - Event analysis and investigation |
| Topic 2: FortiEDR Installation and Configuration | 25% | - Pre-installation requirements and planning - Management Platform deployment - Initial configuration and licensing - Collector Agent installation methods - Communication Manager setup |
| Topic 3: Policy Management and Security Profiles | 25% | - Policy assignment and targeting - Default security policies overview - Custom policy creation and modification - Application control rules - Exclusion configuration |
| Topic 4: Administration and Maintenance | 10% | - Log management and export - System monitoring and diagnostics - Backup and recovery procedures - Upgrade and patch management - User management and role-based access |
| Topic 5: FortiEDR Architecture and Components | 20% | - FortiEDR core architecture overview - Communication Manager and Cloud Console - Collector Agent components and functionality - Management Platform architecture |
>> Latest Fortinet NSE6_EDR_AD-7.0 Test Question <<
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NEW QUESTION # 11
A company requires a global communication policy for a FortiEDR multi-tenant environment. Which recommendation must you make? (Choose one answer)
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 12
Refer to the Exhibit:
A FortiEDR analyst is prioritizing response efforts. One application has a vulnerability score of Critical but an Unknown ACI rating, while another has a Medium vulnerability score with active ACI evidence of adversary targeting. Which application must be addressed first? (Choose one answer)
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is D .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide explains that FortiEDR displays two severity ratings for applications: NIST Severity and ACI Severity . NIST Severity is based on FortiEDR's vulnerability scoring system using the NIST Cybersecurity Framework. ACI Severity, however, is Adversary Centric Intelligence provided by FortiRecon and FortiGuard Threat Analysts, covering dark web, open-source, and technical threat intelligence, including threat actor insights . This helps administrators proactively assess risk, respond faster to incidents, understand attackers, and protect assets.
The guide also states that FortiEDR helps analysts prioritize alerts and incidents using risk factors such as severity of vulnerabilities , relevance of threat intelligence feeds , and severity of affected endpoints , so effort is focused on the most significant organizational risks.
Therefore, the application with Medium NIST severity but active ACI evidence of adversary targeting should be prioritized over an application with Critical NIST severity but Unknown ACI rating , because active adversary-centric intelligence indicates current attacker interest or exploitation relevance. In plain terms: a theoretical critical vulnerability matters, but an actively targeted vulnerability is the fire you put out first.
Option B is tempting but incomplete because it relies only on NIST/CVSS severity. FortiEDR's ACI rating exists specifically to add adversary context to prioritization. Option A is wrong because FortiEDR does not treat all vulnerable applications equally. Option C is wrong because asset criticality can matter, but the guide does not say prioritization depends only on asset criticality.
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NEW QUESTION # 13
Refer to the exhibit:
You are asked to block applications based on hash attributes. Which two factors must you consider when applying the hash value? (Choose two answers)
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that when manually adding applications to be blocked, you can define the application using Hash or using any combination of File Name / Path / Signer attributes. This means hashes can be used independently and do not require filename, path, or signer attributes.
The guide also states that each hash is a unique identifier of an individual application, and the exhibit itself shows the hash field note: "SHA-1 or SHA-2 or MD5." Therefore, the hash must use a supported hash format, making D correct.
For multiple hash entries, the uploaded guide text says they must be comma separated , while the exhibit note says "You can enter multiple hashes comma separated." So the technically exact guide wording supports comma separation, not line separation. However, given your answer choices, A is clearly trying to test the requirement that multiple hashes must be separated correctly. The option wording says "line- separated," which is not exact against the guide; the better wording would be comma-separated . Since no
"comma-separated" option is provided, A is the intended separation-related answer, but the wording is flawed.
Option B is definitely wrong because hash mode is an alternative to attributes. Option C is also not the best answer because, although each hash uniquely identifies a file/application variant, the operational requirement is not that "hashes must be unique to each application" in the way the option implies. Hashes may represent different variants of the same application.
NEW QUESTION # 14
What action does an on-premises reputation server take when it receives a hash request that is not found in its local database? (Choose one answer)
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is C .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that for on-premises deployments, the on-premise reputation service requests missing hashes from the cloud reputation service . If a proxy is not enabled, it requests the missing hashes from the cloud reputation service through the manager nginx . If a proxy is enabled, the on-premises reputation service requests the missing hashes through the proxy.
So, when the local reputation database does not contain the requested hash, the on-premises reputation server does not ignore the request, wait for endpoint input, or automatically block the application. It queries the cloud reputation service for the missing hash reputation data.
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NEW QUESTION # 15
Refer to the exhibit.
An event exception is shown. Which two statements about the exception are true? (Choose two answers)
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
The correct answers are C and D .
The exhibit shows an exception created/updated by FortinetCloudServices after the file Update.exe was classified as Good . This aligns with the FortiEDR Cloud Service behavior described in the guide. The guide states that once FCS is connected, it can enable Tuning , which means automated security event exception
/allowlisting. After a triggered security event is reclassified as Safe, an automated cross-environment exception can be pushed downstream and the event expires, preventing it from triggering again.
Option C is correct because the Event Exceptions window includes Triggered Rules , and the guide states that when editing an exception, the administrator can modify the Collector Groups , Destinations , Users , and the pairs of rules and processes that define the exception in the Triggered Rules area.
Option D is the Fortinet/FCS-related statement supported by the guide's FCS behavior. The guide says FCS can enable follow-up actions, including Tuning through automated exceptions and Playbook Actions , and that playbook policy remediation actions are based on the final FCS determination.
Option A is wrong because the exhibit explicitly states "All the Raw Data Items are covered." A partial exception would mean not all raw data items are covered. The guide explains that if an exception does not cover all raw data items, FortiEDR displays a different indicator and distinguishes covered from non-covered raw data items.
Option B is wrong because the exception scope in the exhibit is set to All groups , All destinations , and All users . The comment references device C8092231196, but that is not the same as saying the exception applies only to that device.
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NEW QUESTION # 16
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