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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Rules of Engagement, Contingencies and Scenario Simulation | - Contingencies / Client Facilitation - Rules of Engagements - Test plans - Types of scenarios |
| Project Management, Governance & Oversight | - Incident Management Response - Roles & responsibilities of the control group - Stages of a red team engagement - Stakeholder Management & Engagement Integrity - Communications plans |
| Key Concepts | - Attack Path Mapping and Attack Path Simulation - Terminology - Red team, purple team testing, penetration testing - Red Team Frameworks - Detection and Response Assessment |
| Planning & Scoping | - Stakeholders for engagements - Requirements Analysis (scoping) |
| Attack Methodology, Key Stages & Common Frameworks | - Cloud Environment Testing and Risks - Lateral Movement Techniques and Risks - Attack Methodology Frameworks - Persistence Techniques and Risks - Initial Access Techniques and Risks - Hybrid Environment Testing and Risks - Physical access control bypasses and risks - Privilege Escalation Techniques and Risks |
| Threat Intelligence | - Sources of Threat Intelligence - Considerations of Threat models - Benefits of Active vs Passive Methodologies - Legalities / Ethics considerations of Threat Intelligence sources |
| Dropper/Implant Design, Safety and Secure Coding | - Persistent vs Semi-Persistent implant design and risks - Secure Data Handling - Encryption vs Encoding - Implant Controls - Infrastructure Controls - Implant Droppers capabilities and risks - Implant Core capabilities and risks |
| Risk Management, Reporting and Communication | - Lexicon - Internationally Recognised Standards and Frameworks - Articulating Risk - Engagement Risk Management |
| Legal, Ethical and Moral Aspects of Attack Management | - Computer crime/cyber abuse and misuse legislation - Data handling legislation - Additional relevant legislation or contractual information - Ethical testing considerations - Privacy legislation - Inadvertent and Collateral targeting |
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NEW QUESTION # 33
Which of the following best describes appropriate handling of findings within a report that reveal a genuinely severe, urgent risk requiring immediate client action, discovered partway through the engagement?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Consistent with the escalation and communication principles established throughout this document, a genuinely urgent, severe finding discovered during the engagement should be escalated promptly to the client through the agreed communication/escalation process as soon as it is identified - allowing the client to take timely action to address real risk - rather than being held back until the final report, which may not be delivered until weeks or months later. The final, comprehensive report then provides full supporting context and detail for the record. Withholding such urgent action-relevant findings until the very end (D) could allow a genuinely serious risk to persist unaddressed for an unacceptable period; withholding urgent findings entirely from any report (A) would be a serious professional and ethical failure; and while an initial urgent escalation might reasonably be verbal for speed, good practice requires it to be promptly followed up and confirmed in writing, not left as an entirely undocumented verbal-only communication (B), consistent with the record-keeping principles established elsewhere in this document.
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which of the following best describes the value of scheduling a formal closure/debrief meeting with key stakeholders after the report is delivered, rather than simply emailing the report with no further discussion?
Answer: D
Explanation:
A formal closure or debrief meeting provides real, additional value beyond the written report alone - giving stakeholders the opportunity to ask questions, seek clarification on specific findings or recommendations, discuss prioritisation and practical next steps, and ensuring key messages are genuinely understood in a way that reduces the risk of misinterpreting a purely written deliverable. This interactive element adds substantial value, not none (A); an effective closure meeting typically benefits from including both senior stakeholders (for risk and prioritisation decisions) and relevant technical stakeholders (for detailed understanding and practical remediation planning), rather than excluding one group entirely (B); and it should logically occur after the report has been substantively finalised and delivered, so there is a concrete deliverable to discuss, rather than before (C).
NEW QUESTION # 35
Which of the following scenarios best illustrates appropriate use of STAR-FS rather than CBEST?
Answer: C
Explanation:
STAR-FS is specifically designed for financial services firms that fall outside the scope of mandatory, regulator-designated schemes like CBEST but still want rigorous, intelligence-led assurance - making option B the clearest fit. D globally systemically important bank designated for CBEST (D) would fall under that specific mandatory scheme rather than STAR-FS; an EU entity in scope of DORA TLPT (C) would follow the TIBER-EU-based DORA process; and a Hong Kong AI requiring Advanced maturity under C-RAF (A) would be directed toward iCAST, not the UK-specific STAR-FS scheme.
NEW QUESTION # 36
What does STAR (as offered by CREST) stand for, and how does it differ from CBEST?
Answer: A
Explanation:
STAR (Simulated Target Attack and Response) is a CREST scheme providing a generic, intelligence-led testing methodology that organisations can commission voluntarily, including financial services firms that fall outside the specific scope of a regulator-mandated scheme like CBEST but still want a rigorous, scenario- based assessment aligned to similar principles. It is not a mandatory nationwide requirement for every company (C), it is a distinct scheme from CBEST, sharing methodology lineage but differing in ownership and applicability (A), and it is not limited to government departments (D) - that space is more closely associated with schemes like GBEST.
NEW QUESTION # 37
Within the CBEST scheme, who is primarily responsible for defining which Important Business Services and systems fall into scope?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Scoping in CBEST is a collaborative process led internally by the firm's Control Group - a small group of senior, trusted stakeholders (often including the CISO, Head of Operational Resilience, and a senior business sponsor) who understand both the business's critical functions and the regulatory expectations set out in the CBEST Implementation Guide. The Control Group works with the regulator's expectations and internal risk assessments to identify Important Business Services and the systems underpinning them before any provider is engaged to test. The accredited providers (D) execute against the agreed scope but do not set it unilaterally; the Bank of England (C) provides scheme oversight and guidance but does not dictate firm-specific scope in isolation; and threat intelligence providers (B) work within a scope that must already be defined before their targeting work can be meaningfully focused.
NEW QUESTION # 38
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