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The CFE-Fraud-Prevention-and-Deterrence Exam consists of four sections: Fraud Prevention and Deterrence, Financial Transactions and Fraud Schemes, Investigation, and Law. Each section contains multiple-choice questions and requires a passing score of at least 75%. CFE-Fraud-Prevention-and-Deterrence exam is computer-based and can be taken at testing centers around the world.

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The CFE-Fraud Prevention and Deterrence exam is designed for professionals who are involved in the prevention and detection of fraud, including fraud examiners, auditors, accountants, and investigators. CFE-Fraud-Prevention-and-Deterrence Exam covers a wide range of topics, including fraud prevention and deterrence, financial transactions and fraud schemes, legal elements of fraud, investigation techniques, and ethics.

ACFE Certified Fraud Examiner - Fraud Prevention and Deterrence Exam Sample Questions (Q288-Q293):

NEW QUESTION # 288
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding how fraud examiners should exercise professional skepticism during a fraud examination engagement?

A. Fraud examiners should not relax their skeptical attitudes under any circumstances.
B. Fraud examiners should form the engagement hypothesis without regard to the available preliminary information.
C. Professional skepticism means beginning all assignments with the belief that something is amiss.
D. Professional skepticism involves maintaining a mindset that no fraud has occurred

Answer: A

Explanation:
* Professional Skepticism Defined:
* Professional skepticism is an attitude that includes a questioning mind and a critical assessment of evidence. Fraud examiners must remain vigilant to indications of potential fraud throughout an engagement.
* Consistent Application:
* ACFE standards emphasize that skepticism should be applied consistently, even if initial findings do not indicate fraud, to avoid overlooking potential risks.
* Why D is Correct:
* Relaxing skepticism can lead to missed evidence or poor judgment, undermining the examination's effectiveness.

NEW QUESTION # 289
An effective system of anti-fraud controls

A. Focuses more on preventive controls than detective controls
B. Increases the perception that fraud will be detected
C. Fully eliminates the risk of fraud
D. Focuses more on detective controls than preventive controls

Answer: A

Explanation:
* Purpose of Anti-Fraud Controls:
* Preventive controls deter fraud before it occurs, making them the primary focus of an effective anti-fraud program.
* Detective controls identify fraud after it has occurred, serving as a secondary line of defense.
* Analysis of Options:
* A. Fully eliminates risk: No system can fully eliminate fraud risk.
* B. Focus on detective controls: Less effective than prevention.
* D. Increases perception of detection: Important but not the primary focus.
* Conclusion:An effective anti-fraud system emphasizes preventive controls.

NEW QUESTION # 290
Patrick is conducting an external audit of a company in a jurisdiction that is subject to International Standards on Auditing (ISAs). While undertaking his audit procedures, he discovers evidence that senior management has been fraudulently manipulating the financial statements. Which of the following is Patrick's BEST response to these findings?

A. Patrick should not disclose his findings to any other parties due to client confidentiality
B. Patrick should report his findings to those charged with governance of the organization.
C. Patrick should immediately report his findings to local law enforcement authorities.
D. Patrick should confront management with his audit findings and try to get a confession.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 291
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the G20/OECD Principles of Corporate Governance?

A. They state that a corporate governance framework should promote transparent and fair markets and the efficient allocation of resources.
B. They are required to be implemented by all corporations in the jurisdictions that have officially adopted them.
C. They assert that a corporate governance framework should ensure that the treatment of shareholders differs based on the class of stock they own.
D. They are intended to be applicable in emerging markets but not in developed economies.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed in Depth Explanation:
The G20/OECD Principles of Corporate Governance advocate for transparent and fair markets and the efficient allocation of resources, making Option A the correct statement. These principles are internationally recognized as a standard for policy makers, investors, corporations, and other stakeholders worldwide. The principles are intended to apply to both developed and emerging markets, not justemerging ones (rejecting Option C), and while influential, they are not legally binding mandates (rejecting Option D). They also support the equitable treatment of shareholders, regardless of share class (rejecting Option B).
Reference:Fraud Examiners Manual, 2022, Fraud Prevention and Deterrence, Corporate Governance - Section 4.308.

NEW QUESTION # 292
Patrick is conducting an external audit of a company in a jurisdiction that is subject to International Standards on Auditing (ISAs). While undertaking his audit procedures, he discovers evidence that senior management has been fraudulently manipulating the financial statements. Which of the following is Patrick's BEST response to these findings?

A. Patrick should not disclose his findings to any other parties due to client confidentiality
B. Patrick should report his findings to those charged with governance of the organization.
C. Patrick should immediately report his findings to local law enforcement authorities.
D. Patrick should confront management with his audit findings and try to get a confession.

Answer: B

Explanation:
* International Standards on Auditing (ISAs) Requirements:
* ISAs require auditors to communicate suspected or confirmed fraud to "those charged with governance" of the organization, as they have the responsibility for oversight.
* ISA 240, "The Auditor's Responsibilities Relating to Fraud in an Audit of Financial Statements," mandates that findings be reported to appropriate governance bodies before considering further actions.
* Confidentiality and Legal Obligations:
* Auditors must maintain confidentiality unless legal or regulatory frameworks require disclosure to authorities. Immediate reporting to law enforcement (option B) may breach confidentiality without proper internal escalation.
* Why Option D is Correct:
* Reporting to governance ensures proper internal actions are taken and protects the integrity of the audit process. It allows the organization to address the issue before external involvement if required.

NEW QUESTION # 293
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