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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Physician Roles (CanMEDS Framework) | - Medical Expert
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NEW QUESTION # 279
A 62-year-old woman is referred to your clinic for evaluation of hypercalcemia. She has a history of hypertension and vitamin D deficiency. Her medications include hydrochlorothiazide and vitamin D supplements. Laboratory investigations are as follows:
* Calcium: 2.72 mmol/L (#)
* Phosphate: 0.9 mmol/L (#)
* Parathyroid hormone (PTH): 0.9 pmol/L (#)
* 25-hydroxy vitamin D: 80 nmol/L (normal)
Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: E
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
This patient has hypercalcemia with suppressed PTH, ruling out primary hyperparathyroidism. The differential includes malignancy-associated hypercalcemia, vitamin D intoxication, and medications. Given the low PTH and normal vitamin D level, malignancy (e.g., multiple myeloma) is a leading concern. Serum protein electrophoresis and urine for Bence-Jones proteins (light chains) are appropriate next steps.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Endocrinology, "Hypercalcemia":
"PTH-independent hypercalcemia should prompt investigation for malignancy. Multiple myeloma is a common cause in older adults-order SPEP and UPEP." MCCQE1 Objectives (Endocrinology > 37-1: Calcium Disorders):
"Candidates must investigate non-PTH mediated hypercalcemia, including consideration of multiple myeloma." A (urine calcium) helps in familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia, but this is unlikely given low PTH. B (calcitriol) would worsen hypercalcemia. C is inappropriate because PTH is suppressed. D (changing HCTZ) may help, but malignancy must be ruled out first.
NEW QUESTION # 280
A 79-year-old woman is brought by a long-term care (LTC) facility staff member to your clinic with concerning behaviours. On history, she was admitted to an LTC facility 6 months ago with vascular dementia.
Three days ago, she became very aggressive towards her caregivers. There is no clear pattern to her aggression. Some staff members report that she is quieter than usual, whereas others report that she is agitated, talks to herself, and picks at her clothes. On examination, she appears very confused. She does not finish her answers and seems to "drift off" during conversation. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Delirium is the most likely diagnosis because the change is acute (3 days) with fluctuating level of activity (quiet at times, agitated at others) and prominent inattention (does not finish answers, "drifts off" during conversation). MCCQE objectives emphasize distinguishing delirium from dementia: dementia is typically chronic and progressive , whereas delirium is a sudden, reversible syndrome characterized by disturbed attention and awareness, often with altered sleep-wake cycle, perceptual disturbances, and psychomotor changes (hyperactive, hypoactive, or mixed). This patient's new aggression, confusion, and variable behavior strongly suggest delirium superimposed on existing vascular dementia-a common and high-risk scenario in LTC residents. Major depressive disorder can cause apathy and reduced concentration but does not typically cause a fluctuating course with acute confusion. Lewy body dementia is associated with chronic cognitive fluctuations and visual hallucinations/parkinsonism, not a sudden 3-day deterioration. Late-onset delusional disorder would feature fixed delusions with otherwise clearer consciousness. The next clinical priority is to search for and treat underlying causes (infection, medications, metabolic disturbance, pain, dehydration) while ensuring safety and supportive care.
NEW QUESTION # 281
A 45-year-old man with confusion is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance. He has end-stage renal disease and has missed his last 3 dialysis appointments. He also has a past medical history of antisocial personality disorder and hepatitis C. On examination, he is in respiratory distress. His blood pressure is 170
/90 mm Hg, and his oxygen saturation is 84% on room air. His jugular venous pressure is 8 cm above the sternal angle, and he has crackles in his lungs bilaterally. A venous blood gas shows a bicarbonate of 11 mmol
/L (24-30) and potassium of 7.1 mmol/L (3.5-5.0). Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: A
Explanation:
This patient has life-threatening complications of missed dialysis , including severe hyperkalemia (K# 7.1 mmol/L), metabolic acidosis (HCO## 11 mmol/L), volume overload with pulmonary edema (hypoxia, crackles, elevated JVP), and altered mental status. MCCQE objectives emphasize immediate recognition and treatment of emergent indications for dialysis (AEIOU: Acidosis, Electrolyte abnormalities, Intoxication, Overload, Uremia) . This patient meets multiple criteria-particularly refractory hyperkalemia and pulmonary edema-requiring urgent hemodialysis .
In emergencies where delay would risk death or serious harm, treatment proceeds under implied consent , even if the patient is confused and capacity is uncertain. Contacting family or psychiatry would dangerously delay life-saving care. While temporizing measures (e.g., IV calcium, insulin/glucose) may be given, definitive management is emergent dialysis. Morphine and furosemide alone are inadequate in severe renal failure with life-threatening hyperkalemia. Therefore, immediate initiation of urgent dialysis is the correct next step.
NEW QUESTION # 282
Which one of the following bodies decides whether a physician is permitted to practise medicine in a province or territory?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
The authority to license and regulate physicians to practise medicine is held by the medical regulatory colleges in each province or territory (e.g., CPSO in Ontario, CPSBC in BC).
MCC Objectives (ELOM > 90-1: Medical Regulation in Canada):
"Licensure to practise medicine is granted by the provincial or territorial medical regulatory authority." Toronto Notes 2023 - Ethics and Canadian Health Care System:
"Medical regulatory colleges determine physician licensure and discipline in each jurisdiction." The CFPC/RCPSC (C) certify physicians, not license them. Ministries of Health (A) oversee health policy, not licensing. Associations (E) advocate for physicians but do not regulate. Hospital boards (B) grant privileges, not licenses.
NEW QUESTION # 283
A 10-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her mother because her daughter is crying and says she "can't pee." Her daughter fell on the monkey bars at school earlier that day. On examination, there is a large vulvar bruise anteriorly. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: E
Explanation:
In pediatric trauma, inability to void with perineal bruising raises concern for urethral injury or urinary retention due to soft tissue swelling. The most immediate step is to attempt bladder catheterization. If unsuccessful, consult gynecology or urology urgently to avoid bladder overdistension.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, Genitourinary Trauma:
"In females, perineal trauma can lead to urinary retention due to labial hematomas or urethral injury. If catheterization is difficult, consult gynecology or urology for assistance." MCCQE1 Objectives - Pediatrics > Trauma and Emergency Care:
"Candidates must recognize when specialist consultation is required in pediatric genitourinary trauma, especially in cases of failed catheterization." Options B and D delay necessary care. Coagulation studies (C) may be considered if bleeding is unexplained.
Abuse assessment (E) may be necessary later but does not address immediate retention.
NEW QUESTION # 284
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