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| Certification Vendor: | CompTIA |
|---|---|
| Exam Name: | CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam |
| Exam Number: | CAS-005 |
| Real Exam Qty: | Up to 90 |
| Passing Score: | Pass/Fail only, no scaled score |
| Exam Format: | Multiple-choice, Performance-based |
| Exam Duration: | 165 minutes |
| Related Certifications: | CompTIA Network+ CompTIA CySA+ CompTIA Cloud+ CompTIA Security+ CompTIA PenTest+ |
| Exam Price: | $512 - $544 USD |
| Certificate Validity Period: | 3 years |
| Available Languages: | Japanese, English, Thai |
| Recommended Training: | CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide CompTIA Official Training |
| Exam Registration: | CompTIA Official Registration Pearson VUE Registration |
| Sample Questions: | CompTIA CAS-005 Sample Questions |
| Exam Way: | Online proctored or in-person at Pearson VUE authorized test centers |
| Pre Condition: | No mandatory prerequisites; Recommended: 10+ years of general IT experience, minimum 5 years of hands-on cybersecurity experience, equivalent knowledge to CompTIA Network+, Security+, CySA+, PenTest+, or Cloud+ |
| Official Syllabus URL: | https://www.comptia.org/certifications/securityx |
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NEW QUESTION # 505
After an organization met with its ISAC, the organization decided to test the resiliency of its security controls against a small number of advanced threat actors. Which of the following will enable the security administrator to accomplish this task?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed
Adversary emulation simulates specific advanced persistent threat (APT) behaviors and techniques to test an organization's security posture. In SecurityX CAS-005, this is part of red-teaming and purple-teaming strategies for realistic resilience testing.
Reliability factors (B) relate to operational uptime, not threat simulation.
Honeypots (C) attract attackers but do not directly emulate specific adversaries.
Internal reconnaissance (D) is one phase of an attack simulation, not the full emulation of advanced threat actors.
NEW QUESTION # 506
SIMULATION
A security engineer needs to review the configurations of several devices on the network to meet the following requirements:
- The PostgreSQL server must only allow connectivity in the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet.
- The SSH daemon on the database server must be configured to listen to port 4022.
- The SSH daemon must only accept connections from a single workstation.
- All host-based firewalls must be disabled on all workstations.
- All devices must have the latest updates from within the past eight days.
- All HDDs must be configured to secure data at rest.
- Cleartext services are not allowed.
- All devices must be hardened when possible.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on the various workstations and network devices to review the posture assessment results.
Remediate any possible issues or indicate that no issue is found.
Click on Server A to review output data. Select commands in the appropriate tab to remediate connectivity problems to the PostgreSQL database via SSH.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 507
An organization mat performs real-time financial processing is implementing a new backup solution Given the following business requirements?
* The backup solution must reduce the risk for potential backup compromise
* The backup solution must be resilient to a ransomware attack.
* The time to restore from backups is less important than the backup data integrity
* Multiple copies of production data must be maintained
Which of the following backup strategies best meets these requirement?
Answer: C
Explanation:
* A. Creating a secondary, immutable storage array and updating it with live data on a continuous basis:
An immutable storage array ensures that data, once written, cannot be altered or deleted. This greatly reduces the risk of backup compromise and provides resilience against ransomware attacks, as the ransomware cannot modify or delete the backup data. Maintaining multiple copies of production data with an immutable storage solution ensures data integrity and compliance with the requirement for multiple copies.
Other options:
* B. Utilizing two connected storage arrays and ensuring the arrays constantly sync: While this ensures data redundancy, it does not provide protection against ransomware attacks, as both arrays could be compromised simultaneously.
* C. Enabling remote journaling on the databases: This ensures real-time transaction mirroring but does not address the requirement for reducing the risk of backup compromise or resilience to ransomware.
* D. Setting up anti-tampering on the databases: While this helps ensure data integrity, it does not provide a comprehensive backup solution that meets all the specified requirements.
References:
* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
* NIST SP 800-209, "Security Guidelines for Storage Infrastructure"
* "Immutable Backup Architecture" by Veeam
NEW QUESTION # 508
Company A and Company D ate merging Company A's compliance reports indicate branch protections are not in place A security analyst needs to ensure that potential threats to the software development life cycle are addressed. Which of the following should me analyst cons<der when completing this basic?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) is crucial for identifying and addressing security vulnerabilities during the software development life cycle (SDLC). Ensuring that DAST scans are routinely scheduled helps in maintaining a secure development process.
Why Routine DAST Scans?
* Continuous Security Assessment: Regular DAST scans help in identifying vulnerabilities in real-time, ensuring they are addressed promptly.
* Compliance: Routine scans ensure that the development process complies with security standards and regulations.
* Proactive Threat Mitigation: Regular scans help in early detection and mitigation of potential security threats, reducing the risk of breaches.
* Integration into SDLC: Ensures security is embedded within the development process, promoting a security-first approach.
Other options, while relevant, do not directly address the continuous assessment and proactive identification of threats:
* A. If developers are unable to promote to production: This is more of an operational issue than a security assessment.
* B. If DAST code is being stored to a single code repository: This concerns code management rather than security testing frequency.
* D. If role-based training is deployed: While important, training alone does not ensure continuous security assessment.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
* OWASP Testing Guide
* NIST Special Publication 800-53, "Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations"
NEW QUESTION # 509 
Which of the following is the security engineer most likely doing?
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the given scenario, the security engineer is likely examining login activities and their associated geolocations. This type of analysis is aimed at identifying unusual login patterns that might indicate an impossible travel scenario. An impossible travel scenario is when a single user account logs in from geographically distant locations in a short time, which is physically impossible. By assessing login activities using geolocation, the engineer can tune alerts to identify and respond to potential security breaches more effectively.
NEW QUESTION # 510
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