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To be eligible for the CRISC certification exam, candidates must have at least three years of experience in IT risk management and information systems control. Candidates must also adhere to the ISACA Code of Professional Ethics and pass the CRISC exam, which is a four-hour, 150-question exam. CRISC Exam is computer-based and can be taken at any of the Pearson VUE testing centers located around the world. Upon passing the exam, candidates will be awarded the CRISC certification and will be recognized as experts in the field of IT risk management and information systems control.
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Obtaining the CRISC Certification can be a valuable asset for professionals in the field of information systems and security. It demonstrates a high level of expertise in risk management and can lead to career advancement and increased earning potential. However, it requires significant study and preparation, as well as ongoing commitment to maintaining knowledge and skills in the field.
The benefits of earning a CRISC certification are numerous. For one, it can help professionals stand out in a competitive job market and increase their earning potential. Additionally, it can provide a pathway to leadership roles within an organization, as it demonstrates an individual's expertise in risk management and IT governance. Finally, it can help organizations identify and mitigate risks in their information systems, which can lead to increased efficiency, better decision-making, and reduced costs.
NEW QUESTION # 262
Mitigating technology risk to acceptable levels should be based PRIMARILY upon:
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Mitigating technology risk to acceptable levels means that the organization implements and maintains appropriate controls to reduce the likelihood and impact of potential threats or losses that may arise from
* the use of technology, such as IT systems, applications, networks, devices, etc.
* The primary factor that should guide the mitigation of technology risk is the organizational risk appetite.
This means that the organization defines and communicates the amount and type of risk that it is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives and strategy.
* The organizational risk appetite helps to determine the risk tolerance and thresholds for different risk categories and scenarios, prioritize the risks, select the most suitable risk responses, allocate the resources and budget for risk management, and monitor and report the risk performance and outcomes.
* The other options are not the primary factors that should guide the mitigation of technology risk. They are either secondary or not essential for risk management.
The references for this answer are:
* Risk IT Framework, page 25
* Information Technology & Security, page 19
* Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 17
NEW QUESTION # 263
You are the project manager of GHT project. You have analyzed the risk and applied appropriate controls. In turn, you got residual risk as a result of this. Residual risk can be used to determine which of the following?
Answer: B,C,E,F
Explanation:
is incorrect. Status of enterprise's risk can be determined only after risk monitoring.
NEW QUESTION # 264
Which of the following is MOST important when defining controls?
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 265
Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure that outsourced service providers comply with the enterprise's information security policy?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume C
Explanation:
As regular audits can spot gaps in information security compliance, periodic audits can ensure that outsourced service provider comply with the enterprise's information security policy.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Penetration testing can identify security vulnerability, but cannot ensure information compliance.
B: Service level monitoring can only identify operational issues in the enterprise's operational environment. It does not play any role in ensuring that outsourced service provider complies with the enterprise's information security policy.
C: Training can increase user awareness of the information security policy, but is less effective than periodic auditing.
NEW QUESTION # 266
During the control evaluation phase of a risk assessment, it is noted that multiple controls are ineffective.
Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The control evaluation phase of a risk assessment is the phase where the risk practitioner evaluates the effectiveness and efficiency of the existing or planned controls that mitigate the identified risks. Controls are the actions or measures that reduce the likelihood or impact of the risks to an acceptable level. The control evaluation phase involves testing, reviewing, and auditing the controls, and identifying any gaps or weaknesses that need to be addressed. If the control evaluation phase reveals that multiple controls are ineffective, the risk practitioner's first course of action should be to determine the root cause of the control failures. The root cause is the underlying or fundamental reason that leads to the problem or issue, such as the control failure. By determining the root cause of the control failures, the risk practitioner can understand why the controls are not working as intended, and what factors or variables are influencing the control performance. This will help the risk practitioner to identify and implement the most appropriate and effective risk response strategy and actions, such as recommending risk remediation, comparing the residual risk, or escalating the control failures. The other options are not the first course of action, as they involve different steps or outcomes of the risk management process:
* Recommend risk remediation of the ineffective controls means that the risk practitioner suggests the actions or measures that can improve or restore the effectiveness of the controls, such as by modifying, replacing, or adding the controls. This may be a useful step in the risk management process, but it is not the first course of action, as it may not address the root cause of the control failures, or may not be feasible or efficient for the enterprise's needs.
* Compare the residual risk to the current risk appetite means that the risk practitioner evaluates the level of risk that remains after considering the existing or planned controls, and compares it with the amount and type of risk that the enterprise is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. This may be a helpful step in the risk management process, but it is not the first course of action, as it may not reflect the true or current level of risk exposure, or may not account for the uncertainties or complexities of the risks or the controls.
* Escalate the control failures to senior management means that the risk practitioner communicates the control failures to the senior leaders of the enterprise, who oversee the enterprise-wide risk management program, and provide guidance and direction to the risk owners and practitioners. This may be a necessary step in the risk management process, but it is not the first course of action, as it may not provide sufficient or timely information or action to address the control failures, or may not reflect the urgency or priority of the control failures. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.3.1, pp. 62-63.
NEW QUESTION # 267
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