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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Forensics Processes | 15% | - Legal and compliance considerations - Antiforensic techniques: debugging, geolocation, obfuscation - Data acquisition: memory, disk, network - Evidence handling and chain of custody |
| Fundamentals | 20% | - Evidence collection in virtualized environments - YARA rules for malware identification and classification - Antiforensic tactics, techniques, and procedures - Root cause analysis reporting components - Encoding and obfuscation techniques - Network infrastructure device forensics |
| Incident Response Techniques | 30% | - Interpreting alerts from SIEM, IDS/IPS, syslog - Attack vector analysis and mitigation recommendations - Cisco security solutions for detection and prevention - Response to zero-day exploits and vulnerabilities - Correlating host and network activity data - Threat intelligence interpretation: IOCs, IOAs, actor profiling - Post-incident analysis and improvement actions |
| Forensics Techniques | 20% | - MITRE ATT&CK framework for fileless malware analysis - Forensic tools: Volatility, Sysinternals, SIFT, TCPdump - Script analysis (Python, PowerShell, Bash) for log processing - Identifying Indicators of Compromise (IOC) from tools output - Host-based evidence location and collection |
| Malware Analysis | 15% | - Malware family and campaign identification - Malware classification and behavior analysis - Static and dynamic malware analysis - Reverse engineering principles |
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NEW QUESTION # 63
A threat actor attempts to avoid detection by turning data into a code that shifts numbers to the right four times. Which anti-forensics technique is being used?
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 64
A security team detected an above-average amount of inbound tcp/135 connection attempts from unidentified senders. The security team is responding based on their incident response playbook. Which two elements are part of the eradication phase for this incident? (Choose two.)
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
The eradication phase in incident response involves eliminating the root cause of the incident and strengthening defenses to prevent reoccurrence. In this case:
Intrusion Prevention System (D): Adding new rules to the IPS to detect and block malicious activity on TCP
/135 is a direct eradication step to remove the threat's entry point and prevent future attacks.
Centralized User Management (C): Hardening user accounts, removing unnecessary permissions, and applying tighter authentication/authorization measures helps eliminate the possibility that threat actors could exploit weak or mismanaged accounts to continue accessing the system.
Although anti-malware software (A) and enterprise block listing (E) are valuable, the most direct eradication steps here specifically involve managing network access (via IPS) and strengthening user controls (via centralized user management), especially when TCP/135 (MSRPC endpoint mapper) can be used to enumerate services and potentially access vulnerable endpoints remotely.
This aligns with best practices outlined in incident response frameworks (such as the NIST SP 800-61 and referenced resources), which emphasize closing the exploited entry points (in this case, TCP/135) and removing any lingering access points through user management and network control enhancements.
Reference:
CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, Chapter: Understanding the Incident Response Process, Eradication Phase, page 105-106.
External Reference: "The Core Phases of Incident Response - Remediation," Cipher blog [1].
External Reference: "Service Overview and Network Port Requirements," Microsoft documentation [2].
NEW QUESTION # 65
Drag and drop the steps from the left into the order to perform forensics analysis of infrastructure networks on the right.
Answer:
Explanation:
Reference: https://subscription.packtpub.com/book/networking_and_servers/9781789344523/1/ ch01lvl1sec12
/network-forensics-investigation-methodology
NEW QUESTION # 66
Refer to the exhibit.
According to the SNORT alert, what is the attacker performing?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The alert clearly identifies ET SCAN DirBuster Web App Scan in Progress, referencing SID 2008186, which is a Snort signature that specifically detects DirBuster activity. DirBuster is a well-known tool used for brute- forcing hidden directories and files on web servers.
The Cisco CyberOps Associate guide and OWASP both identify directory brute-forcing as a reconnaissance technique to find unprotected or misconfigured endpoints on web applications, typically prior to launching deeper attacks.
Therefore, the correct interpretation of the alert is:
C). brute-force attack against directories and files on the target webserver.
NEW QUESTION # 67
Refer to the exhibit.
What do these artifacts indicate?
Answer: D
Explanation:
From the exhibit, the first artifact (PE32 executable from syracusecoffee.com) and the second artifact (HTML from qstride.com) suggest a staged malware delivery method. The executable and the HTML file are linked to different domains, often indicating redirection or multi-stage infection strategies, which is common in phishing or malvertising campaigns.
The Cisco guide explains this tactic as: "One file may appear benign but can initiate downloads or connections to external resources to fetch additional payloads or redirect users". This pattern of domain redirection strongly supports Option B.
NEW QUESTION # 68
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