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| Topic | Details |
|---|
| Topic 1 | - Clinical
- Patient Safety: This domain focuses on improving patient safety by promoting a safety culture, managing incident reporting, educating staff and patients, addressing ethical concerns, and implementing corrective actions to reduce risks and prevent harm.
|
| Topic 2 | - Legal and Regulatory: This domain focuses on ensuring compliance with healthcare laws and regulations, protecting patient information, managing reporting requirements, and supporting accreditation and regulatory responses.
|
| Topic 3 | - Claims and Litigation: This domain focuses on handling potential claims and legal cases, including claim reporting, litigation support, legal documentation management, and analyzing claims data to understand risk exposure.
|
| Topic 4 | - Risk Financing: This domain covers managing financial risks through insurance programs, claims coordination, loss analysis, and developing strategies to reduce financial exposure.
|
| Topic 5 | - Healthcare Operations: This domain involves managing operational risk activities such as conducting risk assessments, developing policies, coordinating risk programs, supervising staff, and supporting patient safety initiatives.
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Quiz CPHRM - Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management (CPHRM) High Hit-Rate Test Questions Fee
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ASHRM Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management (CPHRM) Sample Questions (Q87-Q92):
NEW QUESTION # 87
A hospital has opted to open an anticoagulation clinic. As this is a high-risk medication, a risk manager wants to conduct a risk assessment before opening the clinic. The BEST tool to use would be a
- A. root cause analysis RCA.
- B. failure mode and effects analysis FMEA.
- C. cause and effect diagram.
- D. scatter diagram.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Failure Mode and Effects Analysis FMEA is the most appropriate tool in this scenario because it is a proactive risk assessment methodology designed to identify and mitigate potential failures before harm occurs. According to Health Care Risk Management principles outlined by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, FMEA is specifically used when introducing new processes, services, or high-risk clinical operations, such as an anticoagulation clinic involving medications with narrow therapeutic indices and significant bleeding risks.
FMEA systematically evaluates each step in a proposed process, identifies possible failure modes, analyzes their causes and effects, and prioritizes risks using severity, occurrence, and detectability scoring. This structured approach aligns with patient safety objectives by reducing preventable adverse events before implementation.
In contrast, Root Cause Analysis RCA is a retrospective tool used after an adverse event has occurred. A cause and effect diagram is a component often used within RCA or FMEA but is not a comprehensive risk assessment tool on its own. A scatter diagram is primarily used for statistical correlation analysis and does not evaluate process failures.
Therefore, for proactive risk identification and mitigation prior to clinic opening, FMEA is the best and most appropriate tool.
NEW QUESTION # 88
If a practitioner requests a telemedicine consult with another practitioner in another state, the consultant:
- A. Can practice under the patient's insurance plan only
- B. Never needs any license
- C. May need to hold a valid license in the patient's state (requirements vary by state)
- D. Can rely on verbal permission from the ED nurse
Answer: C
Explanation:
Telemedicine licensure is largely state-based in the U.S., and many states require the consulting clinician to be licensed in the state where the patient is located (with exceptions such as specific compacts, special telehealth registrations, or emergency provisions). Risk management objectives include verifying licensure
/credentialing before services, ensuring privileging-by-proxy processes where applicable, confirming malpractice coverage for telehealth and cross-state practice, and ensuring informed consent/privacy safeguards. Failure to comply can trigger regulatory penalties, payer issues, and liability exposure if care is delivered without proper authorization.
NEW QUESTION # 89
Documentation that assists with defense of a malpractice claim
- A. does not need to be complete or timely.
- B. is not important if the claim happened in prior years.
- C. contains subjective comments about the patient.
- D. describes the provider's clinical decision-making process.
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management principles outlined by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, high-quality clinical documentation is critical in defending malpractice claims. The medical record serves as the primary evidence of care provided and reflects whether the standard of care was met.
Documentation that clearly describes the provider's clinical decision-making process is particularly valuable in litigation. It demonstrates assessment findings, differential diagnoses, rationale for chosen interventions, informed consent discussions, and follow-up plans. Thorough documentation provides objective support for clinical judgments and establishes a defensible narrative of care.
Subjective or disparaging comments about the patient can undermine credibility and may be harmful in court.
Complete and timely documentation is essential; delayed or incomplete entries may suggest negligence or alteration. Additionally, documentation remains important regardless of when a claim arises, as statutes of limitation may allow claims to be filed years after the event, especially in cases involving minors or discovery rules.
Claims and litigation objectives emphasize accurate, objective, and contemporaneous recordkeeping to reduce liability exposure. Therefore, documentation that clearly outlines the provider's clinical reasoning best assists in defending a malpractice claim.
NEW QUESTION # 90
What is responsible for many HIPAA privacy violations in practice?
- A. Impermissible access/disclosure (including "snooping" without a job-related need)
- B. Correctly authorized disclosures
- C. Proper encryption practices
- D. De-identification
Answer: A
Explanation:
A frequent HIPAA Privacy Rule violation isimpermissible access or disclosureof protected health information-commonly including employee "snooping" (accessing records of family, friends, coworkers, or celebrities without a work-related need) and other unauthorized disclosures. Risk management objectives focus on preventing these events through role-based access, audit logs with active monitoring, sanctions policies consistently enforced, workforce training, and a culture that treats privacy as patient safety. Even when disclosures are not malicious, "minimum necessary" failures, misdirected faxes/emails, and unsecured devices can create reportable breaches. Effective prevention is layered: technical controls (access restrictions), administrative controls (policies, training), and detection/response (auditing, rapid mitigation). Privacy violations are high-risk because they harm patients, trigger regulatory action, and damage trust and reputation.
NEW QUESTION # 91
What is the difference between a deductible and a self-insured retention?
- A. A self-insured retention pays after carrier limits are exhausted.
- B. A self-insured retention is paid from operational fund.
- C. A deductible has to be paid before coverage is available.
- D. A deductible is subtracted from any amounts paid by a commercial carrier.
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management principles outlined by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, both deductibles and self-insured retentions are mechanisms used in risk financing to allocate a portion of loss to the insured organization. However, they function differently in relation to the insurer's obligation.
A deductible is typically subtracted from the amount paid by the commercial carrier. In many policies, the insurer may pay the full claim amount and then seek reimbursement of the deductible from the insured, or the insured may pay the deductible portion while the insurer handles defense and indemnity payments above that amount. The key distinction is that coverage attaches immediately, but the insured ultimately bears the deductible portion.
A self-insured retention differs in that the insured must satisfy the retention amount before the insurer's coverage is triggered. Until the retention is exhausted, the insured is responsible for payment and often for defense management.
Option B incorrectly describes a deductible as operating like a self-insured retention. Option C does not distinguish between the two mechanisms. Option D is incorrect because self-insured retention applies before, not after, carrier limits.
Therefore, the correct distinction is that a deductible is subtracted from amounts paid by the commercial carrier.
NEW QUESTION # 92
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