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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Risk Management, Reporting and Communication | - Engagement Risk Management - Internationally Recognised Standards and Frameworks - Articulating Risk - Lexicon |
| Topic 2: Dropper/Implant Design, Safety and Secure Coding | - Implant Controls - Secure Data Handling - Implant Droppers capabilities and risks - Implant Core capabilities - Infrastructure Controls |
| Topic 3: Threat Intelligence | - Benefits of Active vs Passive Methodologies - Sources of Threat Intelligence - Considerations of Threat models (digital vs Physical) - Legalities / Ethics considerations of Threat Intelligence sources |
| Topic 4: Project Management, Governance & Oversight | - Stakeholder Management & Engagement Integrity - Communications plans - Incident Management Response - Roles & responsibilities of the control group - Stages of a red team engagement |
| Topic 5: Rules of Engagement, Contingencies and Scenario Simulation | - Contingencies / Client Facilitation - Rules of Engagements - Test plans - Types of scenarios |
| Topic 6: Key Concepts | - Attack Path Mapping & Attack Path Simulation - Detection and Response Assessment - Red Team Frameworks - Terminology - Red team, Purple team testing, penetration testing |
| Topic 7: Planning & Scoping | - Stakeholders for engagements - Requirements Analysis (scoping) |
| Topic 8: Legal, Ethical and Moral Aspects of Attack Management | - Ethical testing considerations - Additional relevant legislation or contractual information - Privacy legislation - Inadvertent and Collateral targeting - Data handling legislation - Computer crime/cyber abuse and misuse legislation |
| Topic 9: Attack Methodology, Key Stages & Common Frameworks | - Hybrid Environment Testing and Risks - Physical access control bypasses and risks - Attack Methodology Frameworks - Privilege Escalation Techniques and Risks - Lateral Movement Techniques and Risks - Cloud Environment Testing and Risks - Initial Access Techniques and Risks - Persistence Techniques and Risks |
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NEW QUESTION # 239
Which of the following best describes the concept of a "three lines of defence" model as it might apply to governance of a red team programme within a large organisation?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The "three lines of defence" is a widely used governance model distinguishing operational management, who own and manage risk day to day (first line); risk, compliance, or security oversight functions that set policy and monitor adherence (second line); and independent assurance functions such as internal audit, who provide objective assurance to senior management and the board (third line). Applied to a red team programme, this model helps clarify how responsibility for commissioning, risk-managing, and independently assuring the programme's effectiveness is properly distributed. It is not simply another name for the testing phases (D), nor does it refer to using three simultaneous providers (B); it is a genuinely relevant and commonly referenced governance concept in this context (contradicting A).
NEW QUESTION # 240
Which of the following best explains why "consent" obtained from a single business unit within a large, decentralised organisation may not be sufficient legal authorisation to test a shared, group-wide system?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Authorisation is only as good as the authority of the person or unit granting it; if a shared, group-wide system actually involves the interests, data, or control of other business units or group entities that have not been consulted or consented, a single business unit's authorisation may not validly cover the full scope of what testing would actually affect, creating real legal risk. This makes careful verification of who genuinely has authority over in-scope systems an essential scoping step, rather than assuming any single unit's consent is automatically sufficient (B). Group-wide systems are not inherently untestable (D) - they simply require properly coordinated, sufficiently authoritative consent - and there is no rule requiring personal CEO sign- off for every system in every organisation (A); what matters is genuine, sufficient authority over the specific systems in scope, which can appropriately be delegated.
NEW QUESTION # 241
Which of the following best reflects how the RoE should treat the use of testers' personal (non-client-issued, non-provider-issued) devices or accounts during an engagement?
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 242
An AI is preparing for its first iCAST engagement and asks how its outcome might relate to future HKMA supervisory engagement. Which answer is most accurate?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Supervisory frameworks of this kind exist precisely because their outputs are meant to inform ongoing supervisory understanding of an institution's real-world resilience; it is reasonable and expected that iCAST findings, and how effectively the AI addresses them, feed into the HKMA's broader supervisory view over time. Claiming no bearing at all (D) misunderstands the framework's purpose; a single result does not permanently and immutably fix an AI's risk rating with no scope for reassessment as circumstances and remediation evolve (B); and iCAST has no relationship to account fee-setting (A), which is an unrelated commercial/retail banking matter.
NEW QUESTION # 243
What does STAR (as offered by CREST) stand for, and how does it differ from CBEST?
Answer: B
Explanation:
STAR (Simulated Target Attack and Response) is a CREST scheme providing a generic, intelligence-led testing methodology that organisations can commission voluntarily, including financial services firms that fall outside the specific scope of a regulator-mandated scheme like CBEST but still want a rigorous, scenario- based assessment aligned to similar principles. It is not a mandatory nationwide requirement for every company (C), it is a distinct scheme from CBEST, sharing methodology lineage but differing in ownership and applicability (A), and it is not limited to government departments (D) - that space is more closely associated with schemes like GBEST.
NEW QUESTION # 244
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