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>> Reliable ISO-45001-Lead-Auditor Test Question <<
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NEW QUESTION # 103
Which two of the following options do not participate in a second-party audit against ISO 45001?
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
A second-party audit is conducted by a party having an interest in the auditee-most commonly a customer auditing a supplier-or by another competent party acting on that interested party ' s behalf. Consequently, an auditor from a customer may perform the audit, and an external consultant may conduct it on the customer ' s behalf. Auditor training or professional credentials do not, by themselves, determine whether an audit is first-, second- or third-party. By contrast, a certification-body auditor performs independent third-party certification activities, while an accreditation-body auditor assesses conformity-assessment or certification bodies rather than functioning as a customer-side second-party auditor. Therefore, D and F are the two roles that do not correspond to participation in a normal second-party ISO management-system audit. ISO 19011 provides the overarching framework for internal and external management-system audits.
NEW QUESTION # 104
An audit team leader arrives at a steel fabrication organisation that manufactures stairways to carry out a Stage2 certification audit. At a meeting with the OHSMS Manager, she is told that they have won their biggest contact from a construction organization to manufacture and install stairways.
During the audit, a team member found that several employees had suffered hand injuries over several months due to handrail welds not being property polished. The OHSMS Manager blames the new employees they had to take on because of the big contract. The auditor raises a nonconformance against clause 10.2 erf ISO 45001.
In relation to the nonconformity raised by the auditor and in line with the policy of the certification body, the audit team raise improvement opportunities in the audit report.
Which three of the options would represent acceptance opportunities for improvement in the report?
Answer: F,G,H
Explanation:
Opportunities for improvement (OFIs) are suggestions provided during audits that do not indicate nonconformities but are aimed at enhancing the system's performance.
Analysis of Options:
A). A quality control program could involve non-destructive testing of the welded handrails:While beneficial, this focuses on product quality rather than OH and S improvements.
B). Operational planning activities may benefit from an improved risk-based approach based on international standards for risk management:Correct. Enhancing risk-based thinking aligns with Clause 6.1.1.
C). A first aid station could be located next to the handrail polishing operation:While useful, first aid station placement is an operational matter, not directly related to OH and S management system improvement.
D). Additional internal audits of the OHS management system may reduce production problems:Internal audits should address system performance, not production problems.
F). The induction program for new employees could include an awareness training video on health and safety:
Correct. Enhanced training for new employees addresses Clause 7.2 (competence).
G). The requirement for wearing protective gloves could be extended to shop floor workers across all operations:Correct. This improves hazard control in line with Clause 8.1.2.
H). The molding polishers should be disciplined for incompetency:Disciplinary actions are outside the scope of system improvement.
ISO References:
Clause 6.1.1: Risk management.
Clause 7.2: Competence.
Clause 8.1.2: Hierarchy of controls.
NEW QUESTION # 105
When calculating an ISO 45001 third party initial audit duration, which two of the following statements are false?
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Comprehensive Detailed Explanation along with All ISO 45001 Audit References Analysis of Each Option:
Reference: IAF MD 5:2020, Clause 2.3.1 (factors affecting audit time).
B). Consider the number of sites to be sampled.True.For multi-site organizations, the number of sites to be sampled is critical in calculating audit duration. Sampling requirements are determined using guidelines such as IAF MD 1:2022 and depend on the complexity, size, and risks associated with each site.Reference: IAF MD 1:2022, Clause 4.2.
C). Include outsourced processes.True.Outsourced processes that affect the OHS management system must be evaluated as part of the audit. This includes reviewing the organization's control over such processes.
Auditing these aspects impacts the audit duration.Reference: ISO 45001:2018, Clause 8.1.4 and IAF MD 5:
2020, Clause 2.3.1.
D). Include the time allocated for lunch breaks.False.Lunch breaks are not considered part of the audit duration as they do not contribute to the assessment of the management system. Audit time calculations exclude non-working hours, including breaks.Reference: IAF MD 5:2020, Clause 2.5.
E). Incorporate the time taken to travel to/from the audit location.False.Travel time is excluded when calculating the audit duration. While travel logistics are considered in audit planning, they do not count towards the total audit time.Reference: IAF MD 5:2020, Clause 2.5.
F). Think about the complexity of the organization's business.True.The complexity of the organization's business, including the nature of hazards, risks, and legal obligations, significantly affects the audit duration.
More complex operations typically require longer audit times.Reference: IAF MD 5:2020, Clause 2.3.1.
Key ISO and IAF References:
ISO 45001:2018: Clause 9.2.2 (Audit Program).
IAF MD 5:2020: "Determination of Audit Time of Quality and Environmental Management Systems." IAF MD 1:2022: "Audit and Certification of Multiple Sites Based on Sampling."
NEW QUESTION # 106
For the purpose of operating an ISO 45001-based Occupational Health and Safety Management System, which two of the following are relevant requirements of a relevant interested party?
Answer: B,F
Explanation:
ISO 45001 Clause 4.2 requires the organization to determine the relevant interested parties , their relevant needs and expectations (requirements) , and which of those become legal or other requirements for the OH and S management system. Workers are explicitly central to ISO 45001, and the standard is aimed at providing safe and healthy workplaces and preventing work-related injury and ill health. Therefore, A.
Workers requiring a safe environment in which to work is clearly a relevant requirement of a relevant interested party.
ISO 45001 Annex A.4.2 lists suppliers, contractors and subcontractors among examples of interested parties. Since externally provided products and services can affect OH and S performance, a requirement linked to minimizing the risk of harm in those products and services is relevant to the OH and S management system. That is why B. Subcontractor producing products and services that minimise the risk of harm is also relevant. It aligns with the standard's treatment of contractors/subcontractors as interested parties and with operational control over externally provided products and services that can affect OH and S.
Why the others are not correct:
* C. Competitors requiring information on the organisation ' s work environment is not a relevant OH and S requirement.
* D. Top management requiring an annual bonus is a financial/personal issue, not an OH and S interested-party requirement.
* E. Investors requiring maximum growth in return for their capital is a business expectation, but not a relevant OH and S requirement in this context.
* F. Shareholders requiring guaranteed dividend payments is also financial and not relevant to the OH and S management system, even though shareholders may be interested parties in a broader business sense. ISO 45001 requires only the needs and expectations that are relevant to the OH and SMS to be determined.
NEW QUESTION # 107
Which two of the following options best determine the selection of an audit team member?
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Audit-team selection must be competence based. Option E is appropriate because an OH and S auditor needs sufficient understanding of applicable statutory, regulatory and other requirements relevant to the organisation
' s activities. This enables the auditor to recognize applicable audit criteria and evaluate objective evidence in the correct regulatory context. Option F is also essential: auditors must communicate clearly during interviews, team discussions, audit findings and closing activities so that evidence and conclusions are accurately understood. An auditor does not need expert-level knowledge of every process; technical experts can supplement the team where specialized competence is required. A history of complaints, unquestioning cooperation with a leader or an intentionally unstructured personal approach are not valid competence criteria.
ISO 19011 specifically frames auditor competence around knowledge, skills, professional behaviour and the ability of the overall audit team to achieve the audit objectives.
NEW QUESTION # 108
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