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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Accident and Health โ General Knowledge | ~68% | - Insurance Concepts and Underwriting
|
| Nevada Statutes, Rules and Regulations | ~32% | - Nevada Health-Specific Regulations
|
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NEW QUESTION # 130
The Fair Credit Reporting Act requires that:
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Fair Credit Reporting Act governs the collection, use, and disclosure of consumer-report information.
Choice B is correct because an insurance applicant must receive appropriate notice when an insurer may obtain a consumer report or investigative consumer report in connection with underwriting. Consumer reports can contain information relevant to an insurer's evaluation of risk, including credit-related information and other data permitted by law. The notice requirement promotes transparency and gives applicants the opportunity to understand that reporting information may be used in the underwriting process. The remaining choices concern different legal issues. Interest on premium loans is governed by policy and insurance-law rules, not the FCRA. Unfair discrimination is addressed through insurance regulation and unfair-trade-practice standards. Interest for late claim payments is governed by applicable claims-handling requirements, not the FCRA. The FCRA permits insurance companies to obtain consumer reports only for a permissible purpose and imposes duties regarding notices and adverse actions when report information is used. See the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau's FCRA guidance . Study Guide References/Topics: Nevada Insurance Regulation and Licensing; Consumer Reports; Fair Credit Reporting Act.
NEW QUESTION # 131
An incorporated licensee who seeks to do business under a fictitious name is required to file a document about the name with the:
Answer: C
Explanation:
An incorporated insurance licensee using a name other than its true legal name must obtain approval and file the required fictitious-name documentation with the Nevada Insurance Commissioner. This ensures that insurance business is conducted under a name that has been reviewed, recorded, and can be connected to the actual licensed person or entity responsible for the transaction. It supports consumer protection, regulatory oversight, complaint handling, and enforcement of licensing laws.
Nevada's producer-licensing law requires an applicant or licensee wishing to use a name other than the true name shown on the license to submit a request for approval and file with the Commissioner a certified copy of the applicable certificate. The purpose is not merely administrative. A producer may not use a trade, assumed, or fictitious name in a way that could conceal the responsible licensee or mislead an insurance consumer.
The Attorney General, NAHU, and NAIFA do not approve fictitious names used by Nevada insurance licensees. The Nevada Division of Insurance, acting through the Commissioner, is the proper regulatory authority.
Study Guide references/topics: Nevada producer licensing; use of true or fictitious names; regulatory authority of the Commissioner; NRS 683A.301 .
NEW QUESTION # 132
Under a Disability policy, the Elimination period is:
Answer: D
Explanation:
The elimination period is the waiting period that must pass after disability begins before disability income benefits become payable. Choice C is correct because it performs a function similar to a deductible, but it is measured in time rather than dollars. For example, a policy may require an insured to remain disabled for 30,
60, 90, or 180 days before benefits begin. The insured bears the financial impact of the disability during that initial period, just as an insured bears a deductible before medical expense benefits apply. A longer elimination period generally reduces the policy premium because the insurer begins payments later and may avoid paying shorter-duration claims. The elimination period is not necessarily longer for accidents than sickness; many policies use the same waiting period for both. It is selected under the policy terms, rather than being an undefined period solely controlled by the insurer. It is also not the same as a probationary period, which is a period at the beginning of a policy during which sickness losses may be excluded. Study Guide References/Topics: Policy Provisions, Clauses, and Riders; Disability Income Insurance; Elimination Period.
NEW QUESTION # 133
Under an Accidental Death and Dismemberment policy, in which of the following circumstances will an autopsy NOT be performed?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. An AD & D policy may give the insurer the right to conduct an autopsy when death occurs, provided the autopsy is not prohibited by law. The autopsy provision helps the insurer determine whether the cause of death falls within the policy's accidental-death coverage and whether an exclusion applies. A beneficiary's refusal does not necessarily defeat the insurer's contractual right if applicable law permits the examination. The fact that death resulted from illness rather than an accident may affect whether an AD & D benefit is payable, but it does not itself state the legal restriction on performing an autopsy.
Likewise, an accidental cause of death is precisely the type of circumstance in which the insurer may need medical evidence to verify coverage. The insurer's right is not unlimited: it must comply with legal requirements, including restrictions imposed by statute, court order, or other controlling authority. The exam rule is straightforward: the insurer may conduct an autopsy at its own expense unless doing so is prohibited by law. Study Guide References/Topics: Policy Provisions, Clauses, and Riders; Accidental Death and Dismemberment; Autopsy Provision.
NEW QUESTION # 134
A prospect submits an Accident and Health application with the premium and receives a conditional receipt.
The insurance company issues a policy and mails it to the insured, but the insured never receives it. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about this situation?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. A conditional receipt may provide temporary or conditional coverage when the application and required premium are submitted, subject to the receipt's terms and the applicant meeting underwriting requirements. Once the insurer approves the application, issues the policy, and mails it to the insured, the policy is generally considered delivered through constructive delivery. Physical receipt by the insured is not required when the insurer has completed issuance and mailing without retaining control over the policy. Accordingly, failure of the insured to receive the mailed policy does not, by itself, prevent the policy from being in force. Choice A incorrectly assumes that personal delivery is always essential. Choices B and C introduce conditions that are not part of the usual delivery rule. The policy's effective date remains governed by the application, conditional receipt, policy provisions, and underwriting approval. This question tests the distinction between actual delivery, where the insured personally receives the policy, and constructive delivery, where the insurer's completed mailing is sufficient to establish delivery. Study Guide References
/Topics: Completing the Application, Underwriting, and Delivering the Policy; Conditional Receipts; Policy Delivery.
NEW QUESTION # 135
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