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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Trauma | - Traumatic injuries
|
| EMS Operations | - Operational procedures
|
| Cardiology & Resuscitation | - Cardiac emergencies
|
| Medical, Obstetrics & Pediatrics | - Medical emergencies
|
| Airway, Respiration & Ventilation | - Airway management
|
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NEW QUESTION # 95
A 25-year-old patient had ingested an unknown quantity of a household cleaner one hour earlier. The patient has swelling around the mouth and stridor. Which of the following actions should the EMT prioritize? Select the two answer options that are correct.
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
The correct answers are A. Prevent hypoxemia and C. Maintain airway patency.
This patient is showing signs of airway compromise:
* Swelling around the mouth
* Stridor # indicates upper airway obstruction
These findings strongly suggest a caustic ingestion with airway edema, which can rapidly progress to complete airway obstruction.
Priority: Airway and Breathing (ABCs)
According to NREMT principles, the highest priority is airway management and oxygenation.
1. Maintain airway patency (C):
* Swelling and stridor indicate a narrowing airway
* Immediate action is required to keep the airway open
* Prepare for suctioning, positioning, and possible advanced airway support
2. Prevent hypoxemia (A):
* Due to airway compromise, the patient is at high risk for inadequate oxygenation
* Administer high-flow oxygen and monitor closely
NREMT-aligned guidance states:
* "Airway compromise takes priority in caustic ingestions."
* "Stridor indicates impending airway obstruction."
* "Ensure airway patency and adequate oxygenation first."
Why the other options are incorrect:
* B. Identify the chemicalImportant, but not the immediate priority over airway management
* D. Irrigate the affected areaMay be appropriate for external exposures, but airway takes priority here
* E. Administer activated charcoalContraindicated in caustic ingestions and in patients with airway compromise or vomiting risk Exact Extracts (NREMT-aligned EMT educational references):
* "Airway management is the priority in patients with signs of airway compromise."
* "Stridor is a sign of upper airway obstruction."
* "Do not administer activated charcoal in caustic ingestions."
Clinical Priority Summary:
Because this patient shows airway swelling and stridor, the EMT must immediately focus on airway patency and oxygenation, making A and C the correct answers.
References:
NREMT EMT Education Standards - Medical Emergencies (Toxicology)
NREMT National Continued Competency Program (NCCP)
AAOS Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured (NREMT-aligned)
NEW QUESTION # 96
A 70-year-old patient has a sudden onset of difficulty breathing with throat and chest tightness after working outside. The EMT auscultates bilateral wheezes. The vital signs are BP 60/44, P 128, R 28, and SpO# 90% on room air. Which of the following treatments should the EMT administer?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The symptoms and vital signs (wheezing, hypotension, high pulse rate, respiratory distress) are strongly indicative ofanaphylaxis, which is alife-threatening allergic reaction. Bilateral wheezing and hypotension further confirm systemic involvement. Thefirst-line treatment is intramuscular epinephrine, which:
* Reverses bronchospasm (via beta-2 adrenergic effects)
* Raises blood pressure (via alpha-1 vasoconstriction)
* Improves airway tone and reduces mucosal edema
A metered-dose inhaler may help in mild bronchospasm but is insufficient duringanaphylactic shock.
Positive pressure ventilations are a secondary measure if respiratory failure occurs. Nitroglycerin is contraindicated due to low BP.
References:
NREMT Medical/Obstetrics/Gynecology Guidelines - Allergic Reactions
AHA ACLS Provider Manual (2020), Section on Anaphylaxis
National EMS Education Standards - Immune System Emergencies
NEW QUESTION # 97
A 34-year-old patient has a possible midshaft fracture to their right femur. The EMT is considering what the best time to assess distal neurological function would be:
* Time 1: Before the splint has been applied
* Time 2: After the splint has been applied
At which of these times, if either, should the EMT assess distal neurological function?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (Based on NREMT standards):
NREMT trauma care guidelines clearly state that distal circulation, sensation, and motor function (CSM) must be assessed both before and after splinting any musculoskeletal injury.
Option C is correct because the pre-splint assessment establishes a baseline, while the post-splint assessment confirms that the splint has not compromised blood flow or nerve function.
Option A is incomplete and unsafe.
Option B misses baseline data.
Option D violates standard trauma care practices.
Proper documentation of distal neurological status is critical for patient safety and medico-legal protection.
NEW QUESTION # 98
Reassessment of a patient begins with repeating the
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Thereassessment phasein the EMT patient assessment model starts with repeating theprimary survey(also called the primary assessment), which includes:
* Airway
* Breathing
* Circulation
* Disability (mental status)
* Exposure/environment
The purpose is to identify any changes or deterioration in the patient'slife-threatening conditions, especially in dynamic or unstable patients. Only after this do EMTs check vitals and reevaluate secondary complaints.
References:
NREMT Assessment Guidelines - Patient Reassessment
Brady Emergency Care (13th ed.), Chapter: Assessment in EMS
National EMS Education Standards - Patient Assessment
NEW QUESTION # 99
Which of the following bones is most likely to cause external leg rotation when fractured?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Femur.
Why B is correct (Femur):
A fracture of the femur, especially the proximal femur (hip region), commonly results in:
* External rotation of the affected leg
* Shortening of the limb
This occurs because:
* Strong muscles (particularly the hip external rotators) pull on the fractured bone
* The limb naturally falls into an externally rotated position
NREMT-aligned trauma guidance states:
* "Femur fractures often present with shortening and external rotation of the leg."
* "Muscle spasms and bone displacement alter normal limb alignment."
Why the other options are incorrect:
* A. Pubis: Pelvic fractures may cause pain and instability but do not typically cause isolated external rotation of the leg.
* C. Patella: Affects the knee; does not cause external rotation of the entire leg.
* D. L5 vertebra: Spinal injury; may cause neurologic deficits but not limb rotation.
Exact Extracts:
* "Femur fractures commonly result in limb shortening and external rotation."
* "Muscle forces acting on the fractured femur alter positioning of the leg."
* "Assessment includes observing deformity and abnormal limb positioning." References:
NREMT EMT Education Standards - Trauma (Musculoskeletal Injuries)
NREMT National Continued Competency Program (NCCP) - Trauma Emergencies Prehospital Emergency Care (EMT) - Musculoskeletal Trauma
NEW QUESTION # 100
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