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| Certification Vendor: | IIBA |
|---|---|
| Exam Name: | Certificate in Cybersecurity Analysis (CCA) Exam |
| Exam Number: | IIBA-CCA |
| Exam Price: | $250 (IIBA Member), $400 (Non-Member) |
| Exam Format: | Competency-based, Knowledge-based, Multiple-choice |
| Real Exam Qty: | 75 |
| Certificate Validity Period: | 3 years |
| Available Languages: | English |
| Passing Score: | Not published; result shown as Pass/Fail |
| Exam Duration: | 90 minutes |
| Recommended Training: | IIBA CCA Exam Handbook IIBA Endorsed Education Providers |
| Exam Registration: | IIBA Official Registration PSI Exam Scheduling |
| Sample Questions: | IIBA IIBA-CCA Sample Questions |
| Exam Way: | Online remote proctored exam |
| Pre Condition: | No formal prerequisites; recommended background in business analysis or IT |
| Official Syllabus URL: | https://www.iiba.org/business-analysis-certifications/certificate-in-cybersecurity-analysis/ |
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NEW QUESTION # 51
In the OSI model for network communication, the Session Layer is responsible for:
Answer: B
Explanation:
The OSI Session Layer (Layer 5) is responsible for establishing, managing, and terminating sessions between communicating applications. A session is the logical dialogue that allows two endpoints to coordinate how communication starts, how it continues, and how it ends. This includes controlling the "conversation" state, such as who can transmit at what time, maintaining the session so it stays active, and closing it cleanly when it is no longer needed. Because of this, option A best matches the Session Layer's core responsibilities.
In contrast, presenting data to the receiver in a recognizable form is the job of the Presentation Layer (Layer 6), which deals with formatting, encoding, compression, and often cryptographic transformation concepts. Adding appropriate network addresses to packets aligns to the Network Layer (Layer 3), where logical addressing and routing decisions occur, typically associated with IP addressing. Transmitting the data on the medium is handled at the Physical Layer (Layer 1), which concerns signals, cabling, and the actual movement of bits.
From a cybersecurity perspective, session management is important because weaknesses can enable session hijacking, replay, or fixation, especially when session identifiers are predictable, not protected, or not properly invalidated. Controls commonly include strong authentication, secure session token generation, timeout and reauthentication rules, and proper session termination to reduce exposure.
NEW QUESTION # 52
What is defined as an internal computerized table of access rules regarding the levels of computer access permitted to login IDs and computer terminals?
Answer: C
Explanation:
An Access Control List (ACL) is a structured, system-maintained list of authorization rules that specifies who or what is allowed to access a resource and what actions are permitted. In many operating systems, network devices, and applications, an ACL functions as an internal table that maps identities such as user IDs, group IDs, service accounts, or even device/terminal identifiers to permissions like read, write, execute, modify, delete, or administer. When a subject attempts to access an object, the system consults the ACL to determine whether the requested operation should be allowed or denied, enforcing the organization's security policy at runtime.
The description in the question matches the classic definition of an ACL as a computerized table of access rules tied to login IDs and sometimes the originating endpoint or terminal context. ACLs are central to implementing discretionary access control and are also widely used in networking (for example, permitting or denying traffic flows based on source/destination and ports) and file systems (controlling access to folders and files).
An Access Control Entry (ACE) is only a single line item within an ACL (one rule for one subject). A "Relational Access Database" is not a standard security control term for authorization tables. A "Directory Management System" manages identities and groups, but it is not the same as the enforcement list attached to a specific resource. Therefore, the correct answer is Access Control List.
NEW QUESTION # 53
NIST 800-30 defines cyber risk as a function of the likelihood of a given threat-source exercising a potential vulnerability, and:
Answer: D
Explanation:
NIST SP 800-30 describes risk using a classic risk model: risk is a function of likelihood and impact. In this model, a threat-source may exploit a vulnerability, producing a threat event that results in adverse consequences. The likelihood component reflects how probable it is that a threat event will occur and successfully cause harm, considering factors such as threat capability and intent (or in non-adversarial cases, the frequency of hazards), the existence and severity of vulnerabilities, exposure, and the strength of current safeguards. However, likelihood alone does not define risk; a highly likely event that causes minimal harm may be less important than a less likely event that causes severe harm.
The second required component is the impact-the magnitude of harm to the organization if the adverse event occurs. Impact is commonly evaluated across mission and business outcomes, including financial loss, operational disruption, legal or regulatory consequences, reputational damage, and loss of confidentiality, integrity, or availability. This is why option D is correct: NIST's definition explicitly ties the risk expression to the resulting impact on the organization.
The other options may influence likelihood assessment or control selection, but they are not the missing definitional element. Detection probability and control assurance relate to monitoring and governance; predisposing conditions can shape likelihood. None replace the
NEW QUESTION # 54
Protecting data at rest secures data that is:
Answer: A
Explanation:
Data at rest refers to information that is stored rather than actively moving across networks or being actively processed. This includes data saved on laptops and mobile devices, servers, databases, file shares, removable media, backup tapes, storage arrays, and cloud storage services. Because it sits in storage, the main risks involve unauthorized access (improper permissions, stolen credentials, insider misuse), theft or loss of devices/media, and misconfiguration (publicly exposed storage buckets, overly broad shared drives). Data at rest is also at risk when systems are decommissioned or storage is reused without secure wiping.
Cybersecurity documents emphasize protecting data at rest using layered controls. Encryption at rest ensures stored files or database records remain unreadable without the proper key, reducing impact if storage is stolen or accessed improperly. Strong access control and least privilege limit who can read or modify stored data, while segmentation and secure configuration reduce exposure pathways. Proper key management (separating keys from encrypted data, rotating keys, restricting key access) is critical so encryption meaningfully reduces risk. Additional controls include data classification and handling rules, secure backups (including immutable or protected backups), monitoring and audit logging for sensitive repositories, and secure disposal practices such as cryptographic erase or verified wiping.
Options A and B describe data in transit, not at rest. Option D is incorrect because stored data is not automatically less vulnerable; it is often highly attractive to attackers, so it requires deliberate protection.
NEW QUESTION # 55
What is risk mitigation?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Risk mitigation is the risk treatment approach focused on reducing risk to an acceptable level by lowering either the likelihood of a risk event, the impact of that event, or both. In cybersecurity risk management, mitigation is accomplished by implementing controls and countermeasures such as technical safeguards, process changes, and administrative measures. Examples include patching vulnerable systems, hardening configurations, enabling multi-factor authentication, applying least privilege, network segmentation, encryption, improved logging and monitoring, secure development practices, and user awareness training. Each of these actions reduces exposure or limits damage if an incident occurs.
The other options describe different risk treatment strategies, not mitigation. Purchasing insurance is generally considered risk transfer, where financial impact is shifted to a third party, but the underlying threat and vulnerability may still exist. Eliminating risk by stopping the risky activity is risk avoidance; it removes the exposure by discontinuing the process, system, or behavior causing the risk. Documenting the risk and preparing a recovery plan aligns more closely with risk acceptance combined with contingency planning or resilience planning; it acknowledges the risk and focuses on recovery rather than reducing the probability of occurrence.
Therefore, the correct definition of risk mitigation is reducing the risk through implementing one or more countermeasures.
NEW QUESTION # 56
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