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ASHRM CPHRM Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 1	Legal and Regulatory: This domain focuses on ensuring compliance with healthcare laws and regulations, protecting patient information, managing reporting requirements, and supporting accreditation and regulatory responses.
Topic 2	Claims and Litigation: This domain focuses on handling potential claims and legal cases, including claim reporting, litigation support, legal documentation management, and analyzing claims data to understand risk exposure.
Topic 3	Healthcare Operations: This domain involves managing operational risk activities such as conducting risk assessments, developing policies, coordinating risk programs, supervising staff, and supporting patient safety initiatives.
Topic 4	Clinical Patient Safety: This domain focuses on improving patient safety by promoting a safety culture, managing incident reporting, educating staff and patients, addressing ethical concerns, and implementing corrective actions to reduce risks and prevent harm.
Topic 5	Risk Financing: This domain covers managing financial risks through insurance programs, claims coordination, loss analysis, and developing strategies to reduce financial exposure.

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ASHRM Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management (CPHRM) Sample Questions (Q54-Q59):

NEW QUESTION # 54
If there is no OSHA standard for a given potential health hazard, OSHA may:

A. Govern it under the General Duty Clause
B. Ignore it if it is expensive
C. Transfer it to the FDA
D. Have no authority at all

Answer: A

Explanation:
OSHA can cite employers under theGeneral Duty Clausewhen a recognized serious hazard exists and no specific standard applies. Risk management objectives require proactive hazard identification and controls even when regulations are not prescriptive: risk assessments, engineering controls where feasible, administrative controls (policies, training), and PPE as a final layer. In healthcare, this is relevant for emerging hazards (novel chemical exposures, workplace violence risks, certain ergonomic hazards) where specific standards may be limited. Maintaining documentation of hazard recognition and mitigation is essential for defensibility during inspections and for staff safety outcomes.

NEW QUESTION # 55
What group reports information (historically HIPDB content; now within NPDB) related to fraud/abuse oversight?

A. Peer review organizations (for certain state/federal reporting categories)
B. Restaurant inspectors
C. School boards
D. Any patient advocacy blog

Answer: A

Explanation:
The Healthcare Integrity and Protection Data Bank (HIPDB) was created to combat healthcare fraud and abuse; it isno longer operational as a separate bank, and its content was merged into the NPDB. Reporting and querying are governed by HRSA rules defining authorized entities, including certain peer review and oversight organizations in specific reporting frameworks. Risk management objectives include ensuring organizations understand which actions must be reported, ensure due process, and comply with data handling rules. Proper reporting supports system integrity by preventing practitioners or entities with serious adverse actions from moving undetected across organizations. For hospitals and health plans, this strengthens credentialing and contracting decisions, reducing organizational exposure to negligent credentialing and improper network participation risks.

NEW QUESTION # 56
What is the difference between a deductible and a self-insured retention?

A. A self-insured retention pays after carrier limits are exhausted.
B. A deductible is subtracted from any amounts paid by a commercial carrier.
C. A self-insured retention is paid from operational fund.
D. A deductible has to be paid before coverage is available.

Answer: B

Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management principles outlined by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, both deductibles and self-insured retentions are mechanisms used in risk financing to allocate a portion of loss to the insured organization. However, they function differently in relation to the insurer's obligation.
A deductible is typically subtracted from the amount paid by the commercial carrier. In many policies, the insurer may pay the full claim amount and then seek reimbursement of the deductible from the insured, or the insured may pay the deductible portion while the insurer handles defense and indemnity payments above that amount. The key distinction is that coverage attaches immediately, but the insured ultimately bears the deductible portion.
A self-insured retention differs in that the insured must satisfy the retention amount before the insurer's coverage is triggered. Until the retention is exhausted, the insured is responsible for payment and often for defense management.
Option B incorrectly describes a deductible as operating like a self-insured retention. Option C does not distinguish between the two mechanisms. Option D is incorrect because self-insured retention applies before, not after, carrier limits.
Therefore, the correct distinction is that a deductible is subtracted from amounts paid by the commercial carrier.

NEW QUESTION # 57
According to Joint Commission findings, what is a primary cause of wrong-site surgery?

A. Communication failure
B. Laundry delays
C. Pharmacy stock-outs
D. Weather conditions

Answer: A

Explanation:
Wrong-site surgery is a high-severity, preventable event. Joint Commission analyses repeatedly identify communication failuresas a leading root cause-breakdowns in scheduling, consent/site verification, handoffs, and intraoperative confirmation. Risk management objectives therefore emphasize standardized verification systems: correct patient/procedure/site documentation, pre-op verification, surgical site marking, and a robust time-out performed with full team engagement. Communication failures can include ambiguous documentation, incorrect or incomplete handoff information, and hierarchy barriers that prevent speaking up.
Improving communication reduces reliance on memory and individual vigilance and increases system reliability. In addition, organizations must audit compliance, address workarounds, and strengthen team empowerment so any member can stop the line if a mismatch is detected.

NEW QUESTION # 58
Which of the following isnotone of the patient rights enumerated in the Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA)?

A. The right to refuse treatment through an advance directive (where applicable)
B. The right to select any medication the patient wants
C. The right to participate in decisions about medical care
D. The right to receive information about advance directives

Answer: B

Explanation:
The PSDA focuses onpatient autonomy and informed decision-making, especially aroundadvance directives. It requires certain healthcare organizations to inform patients of their rights under state law to make decisions about medical care, ask whether the patient has an advance directive, document it, and avoid discrimination based on whether an advance directive exists. The Act doesnotcreate a right for patients to select any medication they want irrespective of clinical appropriateness, prescribing laws, formularies, allergies, contraindications, or standards of care. Risk management objectives here include: ensuring compliant admission workflows (education + documentation), reducing disputes through early clarification of preferences, and preventing ethical/legal breakdowns during incapacity. Operationally, PSDA compliance improves care planning, reduces unwanted treatment, and lowers complaint/litigation risk by showing the organization respected patient rights and followed required processes.

NEW QUESTION # 59
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