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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Administration and Maintenance | 10% | - Log management and export - Backup and recovery procedures - System monitoring and diagnostics - Upgrade and patch management - User management and role-based access |
| Topic 2: Policy Management and Security Profiles | 25% | - Default security policies overview - Exclusion configuration - Application control rules - Policy assignment and targeting - Custom policy creation and modification |
| Topic 3: FortiEDR Installation and Configuration | 25% | - Management Platform deployment - Pre-installation requirements and planning - Communication Manager setup - Initial configuration and licensing - Collector Agent installation methods |
| Topic 4: FortiEDR Architecture and Components | 20% | - Management Platform architecture - FortiEDR core architecture overview - Collector Agent components and functionality - Communication Manager and Cloud Console |
| Topic 5: Threat Detection and Response | 20% | - Forensic data collection - Event analysis and investigation - Automated threat remediation - Incident response workflows - Real-time threat blocking |
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NEW QUESTION # 13
A company requires a global communication policy for a FortiEDR multi-tenant environment. Which recommendation must you make? (Choose one answer)
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 14
Refer to the exhibit.
An event exception is shown. Which two statements about the exception are true? (Choose two answers)
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The correct answers are C and D .
The exhibit shows an exception created/updated by FortinetCloudServices after the file Update.exe was classified as Good . This aligns with the FortiEDR Cloud Service behavior described in the guide. The guide states that once FCS is connected, it can enable Tuning , which means automated security event exception
/allowlisting. After a triggered security event is reclassified as Safe, an automated cross-environment exception can be pushed downstream and the event expires, preventing it from triggering again.
Option C is correct because the Event Exceptions window includes Triggered Rules , and the guide states that when editing an exception, the administrator can modify the Collector Groups , Destinations , Users , and the pairs of rules and processes that define the exception in the Triggered Rules area.
Option D is the Fortinet/FCS-related statement supported by the guide's FCS behavior. The guide says FCS can enable follow-up actions, including Tuning through automated exceptions and Playbook Actions , and that playbook policy remediation actions are based on the final FCS determination.
Option A is wrong because the exhibit explicitly states "All the Raw Data Items are covered." A partial exception would mean not all raw data items are covered. The guide explains that if an exception does not cover all raw data items, FortiEDR displays a different indicator and distinguishes covered from non-covered raw data items.
Option B is wrong because the exception scope in the exhibit is set to All groups , All destinations , and All users . The comment references device C8092231196, but that is not the same as saying the exception applies only to that device.
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NEW QUESTION # 15
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the exhibit, which two observations are true? (Choose two answers)
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are C and D .
The exhibit shows the incident classification as Malicious . In the Activity Audit, the entry from FortinetCloudServices states: "Classification change: Malicious" and also says the file is classified as malicious. This directly proves that FCS classified the event as malicious . The FortiEDR guide explains that the audit history shows the chronology for classifying the security event and displays details when FortiEDR Cloud Service (FCS) reclassifies a security event after its initial classification by the Core.
The exhibit also states that the file was "Detected as Unknown malware." This supports option D in the exam wording: FortiEDR/FCS has classified the file as malicious, but it is being identified as unknown malware , meaning it was not recognized as a known malware family/signature at the time of classification.
The guide explains that FCS enhances classification using data enrichment, automated and manual analysis, file analysis, sandboxing, machine learning flow analysis, commonality analysis, crowdsourced data deduction, and other methods, so "unknown malware" can still be classified malicious by FCS.
Option A is wrong because the exhibit shows Malicious , not Suspicious. Option B is wrong because the incident status is Unhandled , not resolved or handled.
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NEW QUESTION # 16
Refer to the Exhibit:
A FortiEDR analyst is prioritizing response efforts. One application has a vulnerability score of Critical but an Unknown ACI rating, while another has a Medium vulnerability score with active ACI evidence of adversary targeting. Which application must be addressed first? (Choose one answer)
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is D .
The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide explains that FortiEDR displays two severity ratings for applications: NIST Severity and ACI Severity . NIST Severity is based on FortiEDR's vulnerability scoring system using the NIST Cybersecurity Framework. ACI Severity, however, is Adversary Centric Intelligence provided by FortiRecon and FortiGuard Threat Analysts, covering dark web, open-source, and technical threat intelligence, including threat actor insights . This helps administrators proactively assess risk, respond faster to incidents, understand attackers, and protect assets.
The guide also states that FortiEDR helps analysts prioritize alerts and incidents using risk factors such as severity of vulnerabilities , relevance of threat intelligence feeds , and severity of affected endpoints , so effort is focused on the most significant organizational risks.
Therefore, the application with Medium NIST severity but active ACI evidence of adversary targeting should be prioritized over an application with Critical NIST severity but Unknown ACI rating , because active adversary-centric intelligence indicates current attacker interest or exploitation relevance. In plain terms: a theoretical critical vulnerability matters, but an actively targeted vulnerability is the fire you put out first.
Option B is tempting but incomplete because it relies only on NIST/CVSS severity. FortiEDR's ACI rating exists specifically to add adversary context to prioritization. Option A is wrong because FortiEDR does not treat all vulnerable applications equally. Option C is wrong because asset criticality can matter, but the guide does not say prioritization depends only on asset criticality.
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NEW QUESTION # 17
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the threat hunting event details shown in the exhibit, which two statements about the event are true?
(Choose two answers)
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The correct answers are B and D .
The exhibit shows a Process Creation activity event where cmd.exe is the source process and PING.EXE is the target process. The displayed Executing user is R2D2-KVM63\fortinet, and the command line shows fortinet.com, which means the user fortinet executed a ping command targeting fortinet.com.
The FortiEDR guide explains that Threat Hunting activity events consist of a source , an action , and a target
. It also states that Process Actions have another process as the target and include process-related actions such as Process Creation .
The exhibit also shows file-related details for the executable, including the executable path, product, SHA1 hash, and command line. In FortiEDR Threat Hunting, process execution events are tied to executable-file metadata, so the event is associated with the executable file involved in the process action. This supports B in the exam's intended wording.
Option A is not reliable because the screenshot does not prove MITRE details are unavailable; it only shows that no MITRE detail is visible in the current portion of the details pane. The guide states that MITRE indications appear when an activity event has related MITRE information.
Option C is wrong because the screenshot shows the process status as Running and does not show a block indicator. A green check does not mean blocked; it indicates a trusted/signed/allowed status context. There is no evidence that PING.EXE was blocked.
NEW QUESTION # 18
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