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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Enabling Competencies | 16% | - Professional Conduct and Regulatory Compliance - Client Relationship and Practice Management |
| Technical Competencies | 84% | - Estate Planning - Retirement Planning - Tax Planning - Investment Planning - Risk Management and Insurance - Asset and Liability Management |
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NEW QUESTION # 17
A financial planner recently started her new role at the bank and decided to create a checklist when meeting with prospects. She wanted to include one item on the checklist that would allow her to understand her clients' tolerance for risk. What information should she add, that will help her achieve this objective?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Risk tolerance is measured through qualitative discovery, not through tax records or product documents. A properly designed questionnaire captures how the client thinks and behaves when markets decline, how much volatility is acceptable, whether losses create anxiety, and how the client prioritizes safety versus growth. Tax returns may reveal income and deductions, but they do not establish willingness to accept investment risk. A life insurance policy is relevant to risk management, not market-risk tolerance. A previous financial plan may provide useful background, but it may be outdated and still requires current confirmation. The questionnaire is only one part of the process; the planner should also assess risk capacity using objective facts such as time horizon, liquidity, income stability, debt level, and goal flexibility. For the checklist item requested, however, qualitative questionnaire is the correct answer. Study Guide focus: risk profiling, qualitative discovery, behavioural finance, KYC, and suitability. That behavioural evidence is then reconciled with objective capacity before an investment recommendation is made.
NEW QUESTION # 18
A business owner completes an estate freeze, taking back preferred shares with a fixed redemption value while children receive common shares. What is a primary risk of this strategy for the owner?
Answer: B
Explanation:
An estate freeze fixes the value of the owner's current interest and shifts future growth to the next generation or a trust. The owner usually receives preferred shares with a fixed redemption value. The risk is that the retained interest may not provide enough cash flow, liquidity, or inflation protection over the owner's lifetime, especially if dividends are not paid or the business underperforms. Option A is wrong because future growth is precisely what the common shares are intended to capture. Option C reverses the purpose of the freeze. Option D is incorrect because the freeze does not eliminate tax; it caps the owner's future growth exposure and may reduce future estate tax growth if properly implemented. A planner should assess retirement income sufficiency, control, voting rights, dividend policy, shareholder agreement terms, valuation support, corporate liquidity, and the owner's tolerance for reduced flexibility. Legal and tax advice is essential. References/topics: estate freeze, preferred shares, succession planning, income adequacy risk.
NEW QUESTION # 19
Which statement best distinguishes a defined benefit pension plan from a defined contribution pension plan?
Answer: C
Explanation:
A defined benefit pension plan promises a retirement benefit determined by a formula, commonly based on earnings, service, and an accrual rate. The member can estimate retirement income with greater certainty, subject to plan terms and funding rules. A defined contribution plan specifies contributions to an account; the eventual retirement income depends on contributions, investment returns, fees, annuity rates or withdrawal decisions, and longevity. Option A reverses the distinction. Option C is inaccurate because defined benefit plans are employer-sponsored arrangements with plan governance and funding obligations. Option D is wrong because defined contribution members bear significant investment and longevity risk unless they later purchase an annuity or otherwise transfer risk. For planning purposes, the distinction affects retirement projections, RRSP room through pension adjustments, asset allocation, risk capacity, and income sustainability. A planner must not treat all pensions alike; the type of pension determines both certainty of income and the risks remaining with the client. References/topics: defined benefit plans, defined contribution plans, pension risk, retirement projections.
NEW QUESTION # 20
A client's portfolio target is 50% equities and 50% fixed income. After a strong equity market, the portfolio is now 68% equities. The client's circumstances and objectives have not changed. What should the planner recommend?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Portfolio drift changes risk. If the approved allocation is 50% equities and the current allocation is 68%, the portfolio now has materially more equity exposure than the client agreed to hold. Rebalancing restores the risk profile and imposes discipline after market movement. Option B is performance chasing; it uses recent returns as a reason to increase concentration without revisiting suitability. Option C overcorrects and may sacrifice the return required to meet long-term goals. Option D contradicts the monitoring function of an investment plan. A proper rebalancing recommendation should consider tax consequences, transaction costs, registered versus non-registered accounts, thresholds, and whether contributions or withdrawals can be directed to underweight asset classes. The rationale is not that equities are expected to fall. The rationale is that the client's portfolio should continue to reflect the documented objectives, constraints, and risk profile.
References/topics: rebalancing, portfolio monitoring, strategic allocation, risk discipline. Rebalancing thresholds should be stated before market movement occurs.
NEW QUESTION # 21
Francois and Brigitte are meeting with their financial planner, Robin. They would like to ensure that if one of them were to die suddenly that their mortgage would be paid in full. Their current mortgage has an outstanding balance of $400,000 with 10 years remaining. The couple are in good health and have a well- balanced financial plan that focuses on debt reduction and savings. Which type of insurance policy should Robin recommend to assist the couple in meeting their objective?
Answer: A
Explanation:
A joint 10-year term first-to-die policy matches the couple's exact risk. Francois and Brigitte want the mortgage paid if one spouse dies suddenly, and the mortgage has 10 years remaining. First-to-die coverage pays on the first death, which is when the survivor would need funds to discharge the mortgage. A 10-year term aligns the coverage period with the debt. Last-to-die coverage is inappropriate because it pays only after both insured persons have died, too late to protect the survivor's mortgage obligation. Whole life coverage is permanent and more expensive than necessary for a temporary mortgage balance. Since the couple is healthy and already has a balanced plan, the planner should recommend efficient, purpose-built term insurance rather than over-insuring with a permanent policy. Study Guide focus: mortgage insurance needs, first-to-die coverage, term insurance, debt protection, and risk matching. The death benefit should be sized to the outstanding debt and reviewed as the mortgage is repaid.
NEW QUESTION # 22
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