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AAPC CPC Exam Overview:

Certification Vendor:AAPC
Exam Name:Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam
Exam Number:CPC
Exam Duration:240 minutes
Certificate Validity Period:2 Years (requires continuing education to maintain)
Exam Price:USD 499
Real Exam Qty:100
Passing Score:70%
Exam Format:Multiple Choice
Related Certifications:CPC-A
Available Languages:English
Sample Questions:AAPC CPC Sample Questions
Exam Way:Online (Online Proctored or In-Person at Testing Centers)
Pre Condition:None required for exam (though AAPC recommends medical terminology/anatomy training)
Official Syllabus URL:https://www.aapc.com/certification/cpc

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AAPC CPC Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Endocrine System and Nervous System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and assesses the ability to assign codes for surgeries involving glands, the brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves. Procedures like resections and electrical stimulation are part of the evaluated content.
Topic 2
  • Review of Anatomy: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers a high-level understanding of human anatomy. It includes organs, systems, directional terminology, and anatomical locations, enabling coders to link procedures and diagnoses to the correct bodily structures with accuracy and consistency.
Topic 3
  • Cardiovascular System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and addresses services related to the heart, arteries, and veins. It involves the coding of diagnostic and therapeutic procedures, including catheterizations, bypasses, and repairs.:
Topic 4
  • The Business of Medicine: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and covers foundational knowledge regarding the healthcare system, reimbursement models, insurance payers, HIPAA compliance, and the ethical responsibilities coders hold within clinical and billing environments. It establishes the context in which coding decisions directly affect healthcare operations and financial outcomes.
Topic 5
  • Introduction to CPTยฎ, HCPCS Level II, and Modifiers: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and introduces candidates to CPTยฎ coding for procedures, HCPCS Level II for supplies and services, and the correct use of modifiers. It helps learners distinguish between different code sets and understand their place in medical billing.
Topic 6
  • Evaluation & Management Services: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers office visits, hospital care, consultations, and other E
  • M services. It tests the understanding of time-based coding, medical decision-making, and history
  • exam components per current CMS guidelines.
Topic 7
  • Hemic & Lymphatic Systems, Mediastinum, Diaphragm: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and includes procedures related to the spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow, as well as surgical interventions in the mediastinum and diaphragm. Coders must differentiate procedures by region and system accurately.
Topic 8
  • Musculoskeletal System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and focuses on coding procedures involving bones, joints, muscles, and tendons. It covers surgeries, reductions, arthroscopies, and fracture treatments, emphasizing accurate mapping of procedures to anatomical areas.
Topic 9
  • Special Senses (Ocular and Auditory): This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers the coding of procedures related to the eyes and ears. Topics include surgeries on the cornea, retina, and middle
  • inner ear, as well as related diagnostic procedures.
Topic 10
  • Accurate ICD-10-CM Coding: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and focuses on the precise assignment of diagnosis codes using the ICD-10-CM system. The goal is to ensure accurate representation of patient conditions, proper sequencing, and a clear linkage between diagnoses and services.
Topic 11
  • Integumentary System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and covers procedures related to the skin and related structures. Topics include excisions, biopsies, repairs, and destruction services, focusing on accurate code selection and modifier usage for integumentary interventions.
Topic 12
  • Digestive System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and evaluates the coding of surgeries and procedures involving the oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, intestines, liver, pancreas, and related organs. Understanding endoscopic procedures is particularly critical here.
Topic 13
  • Overview of ICD-10-CM: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and introduces the structure, format, and usage of the ICD-10-CM coding system. It reviews the purpose of ICD-10-CM in diagnosis reporting and prepares candidates to interpret chapters, code ranges, and conventions embedded in the system.
Topic 14
  • Female Reproductive System and Maternity Care & Delivery: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and evaluates coding accuracy for gynecological and obstetric procedures. It includes deliveries, antepartum care, cesarean sections, and surgical procedures involving female reproductive anatomy.
Topic 15
  • Urinary System and Male Genital System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and assesses understanding of procedures on kidneys, bladder, ureters, prostate, and male reproductive organs. Proper use of CPT codes for surgical and diagnostic interventions is tested.
Topic 16
  • Applying the ICD-10-CM Guidelines: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers how to apply official ICD-10-CM guidelines to real-world coding scenarios. It emphasizes the hierarchy of instructional notes, general and chapter-specific rules, and how to make judgment calls within compliant coding frameworks.
Topic 17
  • Anesthesia: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and involves coding anesthesia services based on surgical site, complexity, and time. It tests the understanding of anesthesia modifiers and the importance of linking anesthesia codes with the correct primary procedures.
Topic 18
  • Pathology & Laboratory: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and includes lab tests, specimen analysis, and pathological examination procedures. It ensures that coders understand how to apply codes for chemistry panels, cultures, and histopathological diagnostics.

AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Sample Questions (Q316-Q321):

NEW QUESTION # 316
(Day 1: Provider admits patient toobservation carefor type 2 diabetes with hyperglycemia, orders labs, consults endocrinologist, starts IV insulin drip, keeps overnight. Day 2: orders glucose test, dietitian, documents total time 25 minutes. Day 3: glucose normal, documents 15 minutes, discharges patient. What E
/M coding is reported by the physician for the patient in observation care?)

Answer: C

Explanation:
Observation E/M coding is chosen by thetype of serviceprovided on each calendar date. Day 1 includes initiation of observation with significant work (IV insulin drip, multiple labs, discussion with endocrinologist), supporting an observation initial care code. In this option set,99235represents an observation
"admit and discharge on same date" style service; however, the patient stays multiple days. The question's answer choices are structured around using99235as the initial observation care code offered, then a subsequent observation code for day 2, and a discharge code for day 3. Day 2 includes ongoing management with documented time of 25 minutes, supporting asubsequent observation carecode such as99231(as provided). Day 3 isobservation discharge, which is99238(30 minutes or less) given the documented 15 minutes. While the most current observation framework in CPT has evolved, the CPC-style expected pattern in these choices is99235 (initial), 99231 (subsequent), 99238 (discharge). Therefore, optionBmatches the intended coding sequence across the observation stay dates.


NEW QUESTION # 317
A 55-year-old patient with suspected liver cancer was seen by the physician to obtain a biopsy. The special biopsy needle was placed using ultrasonic guidance. The physician obtained a small tissue sample from the liver, which was then sent to pathology.
What CPT codes are reported?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Procedure: The physician performed a liver biopsy using ultrasonic guidance.
CPT Codes:
47000: This code is for the liver biopsy.
76942-26: This code is for ultrasonic guidance for needle placement, with modifier -26 indicating the professional component.
Code Selection Justification: The CPT code 47000 specifically captures the liver biopsy, and 76942-26 accurately represents the ultrasonic guidance utilized during the procedure.
AMA CPT Professional Edition (current year)
ICD-10-CM (current year)
HCPCS Level II (current year)


NEW QUESTION # 318
Preoperative diagnosis: Right thigh benign congenital hairy nevus. *1
Postoperative diagnosis: Right thigh benign congenital hairy 0 nevus.
Operation performed: Excision of right thigh benign congenital>1
nevus, excision size with margins 4.5 cm and closure size 5 cm.
Anesthesia: General.0
Intraoperative antibiotics: Ancef.0
Indications: The patient is a 5-year-old girl who presented with her parents for evaluation of her right thigh congenital nevus. It has been followed by pediatrics and thought to have changed over the past year. Family requested excision. They understood the risks involved, which included but were not limited to risks of general anesthesia, infection, bleeding, wound dehiscence, and poor scar formation. They understood the scar would likely widen as the child grows because of the location of it and because of the age of the patient. They consented to proceed.
Description of procedure: The patient was seen preoperatively in > I the holding area, identified, and then brought to the operating room. Once adequate general anesthesia had been induced, the patient's right thigh was prepped and draped in standard surgical fashion. An elliptical excision measuring 6 x 1.8 cm had been marked. This was injected with Lidocaine with epinephrine, total of 6 cc of 1% with 1:100,000. After an adequate amount of time, a #15 blade was used to sharply excise this full thickness.
This was passed to pathology for review. The wound required limited undermining in the deep subcutaneous plane on both sides for approximately 1.5 cm in order to allow mobilization of the skin for closure. The skin was then closed in a layered fashion using 3-0 Vicryl on the dermis and then 4-0 Monocryl running subcuticular in the skin, the wound was cleaned and dressed with Dermabond and Steri-Strips.
The patient was then cleaned and turned over to anesthesia for S extubation.
She was extubated successfully in the operating room and taken S to the recovery room in stable condition. There were no complications.
What is the radiology coding for this encounter?

Answer: A

Explanation:
73562 = Knee X-ray, 3 views
-26 = Professional component only


NEW QUESTION # 319
A patient who was training for a marathon collapsed due to heat exhaustion on a very hot day. The patient is driven by his wife to a non-facility urgent care center for him to be treated. On examination, the physician diagnoses heat exhaustion and dehydration. The physician began IV therapy of normal saline that consists of pre-packaged fluid and electrolytes. The hydration lasts for 1 and 30 minutes.
What CPTcoding is reported?

Answer: B

Explanation:
1. Procedure and CPTCode Selection:
The patient received IV hydration therapy with normal saline, which lasted for 1 hour and 30 minutes.
CPTCode 96360 is used for initial IV hydration for the first hour. This code applies to the first 31-60 minutes of hydration therapy.
CPTCode 96361 is used for each additional hour of IV hydration. Since the hydration lasted 1 hour and 30 minutes, 96361 should be reported once to cover the additional 30 minutes after the initial hour.
2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:
Code 96365 is for initial IV infusion for therapeutic, prophylactic, or diagnostic purposes, rather than hydration, and is not applicable in this case.
Code 96366 is used for additional therapeutic, prophylactic, or diagnostic infusions and does not apply to hydration services.
Option A (96360) would only cover the initial hour of hydration, missing the additional 30 minutes, which is appropriately coded with 96361.
3. AAPC and CPTCoding Guidelines:
According to AAPC and CPTguidelines, 96360 should be used for the first hour of IV hydration, and
96361 should be used for each additional hour or portion of an hour beyond the initial 60 minutes.
Therefore, the correct answer is D. 96360, 96361.


NEW QUESTION # 320
According to the Application of Cast and Strapping CPT guidelines, what is reported when an orthopedic provider performs initial fracture care treatment for a closed scaphoid fracture of the wrist, applies a short arm cast, and the patient will be returning for subsequent fracture care?

Answer: D

Explanation:
For initial fracture care of a closed scaphoid fracture, code 25622 is used, which includes treatment and initial casting. The application of the cast is part of the fracture care and is not reported separately. CPT guidelines specify that casting or strapping performed as part of the fracture care is included in the fracture care code.References: AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year), Surgery section, Musculoskeletal System.


NEW QUESTION # 321
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