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| Certification Vendor: | ASHRM (American Society for Health Care Risk Management) |
|---|---|
| Exam Name: | Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management |
| Exam Number: | CPHRM |
| Exam Format: | Multiple-choice |
| Passing Score: | Not publicly disclosed |
| Certificate Validity Period: | 3 years |
| Exam Price: | USD 275 (ASHRM/AHA members) / USD 425 (non-members) |
| Exam Duration: | 120 minutes |
| Available Languages: | English |
| Real Exam Qty: | 110 |
| Related Certifications: | CPHRM |
| Sample Questions: | ASHRM CPHRM Sample Questions |
| Exam Way: | Computer-based testing at PSI test centers (250+ locations in US) |
| Pre Condition: | Minimum 3,000 hours full-time healthcare risk management experience; plus education requirements: High school diploma + 9 years healthcare experience, OR Associate degree + 7 years healthcare experience, OR Bachelor's degree or higher + 5 years healthcare experience. |
| Official Syllabus URL: | https://www.ashrm.org/topics/certified-professional-healthcare-risk-management-cphrm |
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NEW QUESTION # 84
What factors are included in a calculation of Risk Priority Number (RPN) in FMEA?
Answer: B
Explanation:
In Failure Modes and Effects Analysis (FMEA), the Risk Priority Number (RPN) is commonly calculated as the product of three ratings:Severity (S)of impact,Occurrence (O)likelihood/probability, andDetection (D) ability to detect the failure before it causes harm (lower detectability increases risk). This structured scoring helps teams prioritize which failure modes deserve immediate mitigation. Risk management objectives include proactively identifying high-risk process steps (medication administration, specimen labeling, surgery scheduling), designing controls (standard work, forcing functions, redundancy), and tracking residual risk after changes. While cost and feasibility may influence selection of mitigations, they are not the core RPN elements. Using S-O-D improves transparency in prioritization, supports interdisciplinary alignment, and provides a defensible rationale for resource allocation toward patient safety improvements.
NEW QUESTION # 85
Which of the following are proactive elements of a workplace violence prevention program?
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards outlined by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, proactive workplace violence prevention focuses on measures implemented before an incident occurs. These strategies aim to identify risks, strengthen preparedness, and reduce the likelihood or severity of violent events.
Pre-employment background screening helps identify applicants with histories that may pose safety concerns, consistent with legal hiring standards. Ongoing staff training enhances awareness of warning signs, communication skills, and reporting procedures. Leadership rounding increases visibility, supports early identification of environmental or behavioral risks, and reinforces safety culture. Active shooter drills and emergency preparedness exercises ensure that staff understand response protocols and can act effectively under stress.
Options B, C, and D primarily describe reactive or post-incident measures. Law enforcement notification, restraining orders, crisis intervention, DEA notification, documentation, and emergency command activation occur after an event has taken place or when an immediate threat is present.
Health Care Operations objectives emphasize prevention, preparedness, environmental assessment, and workforce education as foundational elements of a workplace violence program. Therefore, pre-employment screening, training, rounding, and drills represent proactive components of an effective prevention strategy.
NEW QUESTION # 86
What is responsible for many HIPAA privacy violations in practice?
Answer: D
Explanation:
A frequent HIPAA Privacy Rule violation isimpermissible access or disclosureof protected health information-commonly including employee "snooping" (accessing records of family, friends, coworkers, or celebrities without a work-related need) and other unauthorized disclosures. Risk management objectives focus on preventing these events through role-based access, audit logs with active monitoring, sanctions policies consistently enforced, workforce training, and a culture that treats privacy as patient safety. Even when disclosures are not malicious, "minimum necessary" failures, misdirected faxes/emails, and unsecured devices can create reportable breaches. Effective prevention is layered: technical controls (access restrictions), administrative controls (policies, training), and detection/response (auditing, rapid mitigation). Privacy violations are high-risk because they harm patients, trigger regulatory action, and damage trust and reputation.
NEW QUESTION # 87
Which of the following isnotone of the patient rights enumerated in the Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA)?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The PSDA focuses onpatient autonomy and informed decision-making, especially aroundadvance directives. It requires certain healthcare organizations to inform patients of their rights under state law to make decisions about medical care, ask whether the patient has an advance directive, document it, and avoid discrimination based on whether an advance directive exists. The Act doesnotcreate a right for patients to select any medication they want irrespective of clinical appropriateness, prescribing laws, formularies, allergies, contraindications, or standards of care. Risk management objectives here include: ensuring compliant admission workflows (education + documentation), reducing disputes through early clarification of preferences, and preventing ethical/legal breakdowns during incapacity. Operationally, PSDA compliance improves care planning, reduces unwanted treatment, and lowers complaint/litigation risk by showing the organization respected patient rights and followed required processes.
NEW QUESTION # 88
An intervention between parties to promote reconciliation, settlement, or compromise is
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, mediation is a form of alternative dispute resolution designed to facilitate voluntary settlement between parties. In mediation, a neutral third party assists disputing parties in communicating, clarifying issues, and exploring mutually acceptable resolutions. The mediator does not impose a binding decision but guides negotiation toward compromise and reconciliation.
Arbitration differs in that the neutral arbitrator typically renders a decision that may be binding, depending on the agreement between parties. Jury trials and bench trials involve formal court proceedings where a judge or jury determines liability and damages based on legal standards and evidence. These processes are adversarial and result in judicial determinations rather than negotiated compromise.
Claims and litigation objectives emphasize cost containment, early resolution, and reduction of adversarial conflict when appropriate. Mediation can reduce defense expenses, shorten case duration, and preserve professional relationships. It also provides greater confidentiality and flexibility than courtroom litigation.
Therefore, the intervention specifically intended to promote reconciliation, settlement, or compromise between parties is mediation.
NEW QUESTION # 89
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