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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Secondary Assessment | 5–9% | - Vital signs and monitoring - Focused history and physical exam - Symptom assessment and history taking |
| Topic 2: Scene Size-Up and Safety | 15–19% | - Hazard recognition and management - Mechanism of injury / nature of illness - Scene assessment and safety protocols |
| Topic 3: Patient Treatment and Transport | 20–24% | - Medical and trauma care interventions - Communication with receiving facilities - Patient packaging and transport procedures - Medication administration and protocols |
| Topic 4: EMS Operations | 10–14% | - EMS system roles and responsibilities - Emergency vehicle operations and safety - Incident command and multiple-casualty situations - Documentation and legal aspects |
| Topic 5: Primary Assessment | 39–43% | - Initial patient assessment - Airway, breathing, and circulation management - General patient impression and priority determination - Identification and management of life-threatening conditions |
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NEW QUESTION # 260
Which of the following would potentially complicate patient care during a helicopter transport?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Theposition of the patient's headwithin the aircraft affectsaccess to airway managementandcrew maneuverability. If the head is oriented away from providers or toward a non-accessible bulkhead, this can delay critical interventions(airway suctioning, ventilations).
Use of air splints, maintaining oxygen saturation, or environmental humidity are not major complications relative tophysical positioningandin-cabin access limitations.
References:
NREMT EMS Operations - Air Medical Transport
NAEMSP (National Association of EMS Physicians): Air Medical Guidelines EMS Helicopter Safety Protocols - FAA Advisory Circulars
NEW QUESTION # 261
A 13-year-old patient has partial- and full-thickness burns to the chest and both arms after falling into a campfire. What actions should the EMT take for this patient? Select the two answer options that are correct.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are A and B because EMT burn care focuses on preventing further injury, reducing contamination, and preparing for rapid transport .
Removing jewelry is essential because burned tissues will swell, and constricting items can compromise circulation. Covering the burns with a dry, sterile sheet helps protect against infection and reduces heat loss, which is critical in moderate-to-severe burns.
NREMT-aligned guidance emphasizes avoiding prolonged cooling in significant burns, not applying ointments, and not removing adhered clothing, while prioritizing sterile covering and transport.
NEW QUESTION # 262
A 67-year-old patient has a sudden onset of weakness and dizziness after feeling a tearing pain in their chest.
The patient has a history of diabetes, myocardial infarction, and hypertension. Lung sounds are clear. The skin is pale and cool to the touch. The vital signs are BP 88/52, P 128, and R 24. Which of the following types of shock should the EMT most strongly suspect?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Hypovolemic shock.
Key findings in this scenario:
Sudden "tearing" chest pain # classic sign of aortic dissection or rupture Hypotension (BP 88/52) Tachycardia (P 128) Pale, cool, clammy skin Clear lung sounds Why this indicates hypovolemic shock:
A tearing chest pain strongly suggests a vascular catastrophe (e.g., aortic dissection/rupture), which can lead to internal bleeding. This results in:
Loss of circulating blood volume
Decreased perfusion
Signs of hypovolemic shock
NREMT-aligned guidance states:
"Hypovolemic shock results from significant fluid or blood loss."
"Patients present with hypotension, tachycardia, and cool, pale skin."
Why NOT cardiogenic shock (C):
Although the patient has a cardiac history:
Cardiogenic shock typically presents with:
Pulmonary edema (crackles)
Signs of heart pump failure
This patient has clear lung sounds, which argues against cardiogenic shock Why the other options are incorrect:
A). PsychogenicCauses temporary fainting, not sustained hypotension with shock signs D). SepticUsually presents with warm skin (early) and signs of infection, not tearing chest pain Exact Extracts (NREMT-aligned EMT educational references):
"Hypovolemic shock is caused by blood or fluid loss."
"Signs include hypotension, tachycardia, and cool, pale skin."
"Internal bleeding can result in hypovolemic shock."
Clinical Priority Summary:
The tearing chest pain with hypotension and signs of poor perfusion strongly suggests internal hemorrhage, leading to hypovolemic shock, making B the correct answer.
References:
NREMT EMT Education Standards - Cardiology & Resuscitation
NREMT National Continued Competency Program (NCCP)
AAOS Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured (NREMT-aligned)
NEW QUESTION # 263
A 48-year-old patient was shot in their left shoulder. The EMT observes bright red blood pulsating from the wound. Which of the following actions should the EMT perform first?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Apply direct pressure.
This patient is experiencing severe arterial bleeding, as indicated by:
Bright red blood
Pulsating flow
Direct pressure is the first-line treatment for external bleeding, including arterial hemorrhage.
It is the fastest and most effective immediate intervention to control bleeding.
EMT protocols emphasize controlling life-threatening bleeding before other interventions.
A). Place a tourniquet # Appropriate if direct pressure fails or bleeding is uncontrollable, but not the first step C). Sling and swathe # Used for immobilization, not hemorrhage control D). Oxygen # Important, but bleeding control takes priority (circulation first in trauma) Exact Extracts:
"Control external bleeding with direct pressure as the first step."
"Arterial bleeding is characterized by bright red, pulsating blood."
"Tourniquets are used when direct pressure fails to control severe bleeding." References:
NREMT EMT Education Standards - Trauma (Bleeding Control)
National EMS Education Standards - Hemorrhage Management
NREMT Candidate Handbook - Patient Care and Trauma Management
NEW QUESTION # 264
A 3-year-old patient has drooling and stridor. The vital signs are BP 82/40, P 132, R 34, SpO# 94%, and T
102.4°F (39.1°C). Which of the following interventions should the EMT perform?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Apply humidified oxygen.
This pediatric patient presents with:
Drooling
Stridor
Fever (102.4°F)
These are classic signs of epiglottitis, a life-threatening upper airway infection.
Critical Concept: DO NOT agitate or manipulate the airway
In suspected epiglottitis:
The airway is severely inflamed and unstable
Any attempt to visualize, suction, or insert an airway adjunct can cause:
Sudden airway closure
Complete obstruction
NREMT-aligned guidance states:
"Avoid examining the airway in patients with suspected epiglottitis."
"Do not insert airway adjuncts or suction unless absolutely necessary." Why D is correct:
Humidified oxygen helps improve oxygenation without irritating the airway It is the safest and most appropriate intervention Keep the child calm and in a position of comfort Why the other options are incorrect:
A). Visualize the airway # Dangerous; may cause airway collapse
B). Suction posterior pharynx # Can trigger complete obstruction
C). Insert an oropharyngeal airway # Contraindicated in this condition
Exact Extracts (NREMT-aligned EMT educational references):
"Drooling, stridor, and fever suggest epiglottitis."
"Do not place anything in the mouth."
"Provide oxygen and avoid agitating the child."
Clinical Priority Summary:
In suspected epiglottitis, the priority is to maintain a calm environment and provide oxygen without airway manipulation, making D the correct answer.
References:
NREMT EMT Education Standards - Airway, Respiration & Ventilation (Pediatrics) NREMT National Continued Competency Program (NCCP) AAOS Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured (NREMT-aligned)
NEW QUESTION # 265
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