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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Physician Activities | - Professionalism
|
| Dimensions of Care | - Acute Care
|
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NEW QUESTION # 242
A 51-year-old man comes to your clinic for follow-up regarding his type 1 diabetes. His hemoglobin A1c is
12.5% (normal 4-6%). He has never had such high blood sugar results. He drinks 2 beers per night to help with sleep. He is not well rested because he has been sleeping on a friend's couch since losing his job last year. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: B
Explanation:
This patient is experiencing social instability (homelessness, job loss) likely contributing to poorly controlled diabetes. Before investigating or prescribing further, it is essential to address his ability to afford and manage self-monitoring and insulin.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Endocrinology, Diabetes:
"Social determinants such as housing insecurity and financial barriers significantly affect diabetes self- management. Addressing access to glucose monitoring and insulin is critical." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Chronic Disease Management:
"Candidates must assess barriers to effective disease control, including financial and psychosocial limitations." Antidepressants (B) may be helpful later if depression is suspected. Thyroid testing (C) is not the priority. A dietitian (D) may help long-term, but immediate access and adherence are more urgent.
NEW QUESTION # 243
An 88-year-old man is admitted to hospital with an upper gastrointestinal bleed. He is confused on admission, but his sensorium clears with resuscitation and stabilization. The patient lives in his own home with assistance from his children. Work-up shows metastatic gastric carcinoma for which no curative treatment can be offered. The family insists that the patient not be told the diagnosis because they fear he will have a "mental breakdown." Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Once the patient's confusion has resolved, he should be presumed capable unless an assessment shows otherwise. MCCQE ethics objectives prioritize patient autonomy, informed decision-making, and confidentiality . Families may request "therapeutic privilege" or nondisclosure, but this is not the default and cannot override a capable patient's right to information needed to make decisions. The appropriate first step is to explore the patient's preferences about receiving serious news (some patients prefer limited information or to delegate decisions). Asking the patient whether he wants to know the diagnosis respects autonomy while remaining sensitive to potential distress. Simply telling him immediately (without checking preferences) may conflict with patient-centered disclosure, and automatically complying with the family's request violates the patient's rights and undermines informed consent for goals-of-care planning. A palliative care consult is appropriate, but only after clarifying the patient's understanding and wishes and beginning honest, preference- guided communication. The clinician should also support the family, explain ethical duties, and reassure them that disclosure can be done gradually and compassionately.
NEW QUESTION # 244
A 31-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, presents to Labour and Delivery with regular contractions at approximately 24 weeks' gestation. As you review her prenatal records, which one of the following is the most reliable way of establishing gestational age?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Accurate determination of gestational age is essential, particularly in suspected preterm labour at 24 weeks.
MCCQE objectives emphasize that first-trimester ultrasound , specifically measurement of the crown-rump length (CRL) at 8-12 weeks , is the most reliable method for dating a pregnancy. In early gestation, biological variation in fetal size is minimal, making CRL highly accurate (±3-5 days).
Dating by last menstrual period (LMP) is less reliable due to recall error, irregular cycles, or ovulation variability. Second-trimester ultrasound provides reasonable accuracy but is less precise than first-trimester CRL (±7-10 days). Third-trimester ultrasound is the least accurate for dating because fetal growth variation increases significantly (±2-3 weeks). Symphysis-fundal height is useful for monitoring growth trends but not for precise dating.
In preterm labour management, correct gestational age influences decisions about corticosteroids, magnesium sulfate for neuroprotection, and neonatal resuscitation planning. Therefore, first-trimester CRL measurement is the gold standard for establishing gestational age.
NEW QUESTION # 245
A mother brings her 1-month-old infant for routine health examination. The infant was born at term with no complications. He is exclusively breastfed every 3-4 hours and growth parameters are normal. His mother tells you that feedings are difficult (the baby cries any time she tries to put him down) and that she is exhausted. Her husband has been on a military mission since the infant was 2-weeks-old. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The most appropriate next step is to screen for postpartum depression . MCCQE objectives emphasize the importance of assessing maternal mental health at routine infant visits, particularly in the first months postpartum. This mother reports exhaustion, difficulty coping, and limited social support (husband deployed), all of which are risk factors for postpartum depression. Although infant growth is normal and frequent crying at 1 month can be physiologic (e.g., colic/normal infant behavior), the key clinical issue is maternal distress and functional impairment.
Postpartum depression can present with fatigue, irritability, sleep disturbance beyond expected newborn care, feelings of being overwhelmed, and impaired bonding. Early identification through targeted questioning or validated screening tools (e.g., Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale) allows timely intervention, which benefits both mother and infant.
Simply reassuring her may miss significant depressive symptoms. Increasing feeds or switching formula is not indicated with normal growth and no allergy signs. Lactation referral may help feeding mechanics but does not address maternal psychological well-being. Therefore, screening for depression is the priority.
NEW QUESTION # 246
A 58-year-old woman presents with a 1-year history of functional decline. She reports seeing rodents and little children invading her bedroom. Her partner tells you she has a slow, unsteady gait and tends to fall. On examination, she cannot sustain her attention during cognitive testing. Which one of the following is most likely to be found on brain imaging?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The symptoms - visual hallucinations, attention deficits, gait instability - suggest dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB), which may show bilateral frontal or parietal atrophy on imaging.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, Neurocognitive Disorders:
"DLB presents with fluctuating cognition, visual hallucinations, parkinsonism, and attention deficits. Imaging may show frontal or parietal atrophy but is not always specific." MCCQE1 Objectives - Psychiatry > Neurocognitive Disorders:
"Candidates must recognize the characteristic features of DLB and support diagnosis with imaging when appropriate." Cerebellar atrophy (A) is linked to ataxia but not hallucinations. Subdural hematoma (B) causes abrupt decline. Mediotemporal atrophy (D) is typical of Alzheimer's. Option E is incorrect - imaging can support the diagnosis.
NEW QUESTION # 247
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