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>> Examcollection CCDS-O Questions Answers <<
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NEW QUESTION # 49
A prospective record review of a problem list states: "Upper respiratory infection (resolved), fractured right femoral head (resolved), metastatic melanoma (followed by oncology), hypertension, morbid obesity, and bipolar disorder." Which of the following query opportunities would provide the highest risk adjusted impact?
Answer: C
Explanation:
In ambulatory CDI risk adjustment, the largest RAF impact typically comes from ensuring accurate capture of high-weight, HCC-relevant chronic conditions-especially active malignancies with metastasis. "Metastatic melanoma (followed by oncology)" suggests an ongoing, clinically significant condition, but the wording could represent active metastatic disease, history of metastatic disease, remission, or no current evidence of disease. Because HCC models distinguish active metastatic cancer from history-only status, clarifying the current status (active/under treatment, recurrent, in remission, history) can materially change whether the condition qualifies for risk adjustment and how the patient's expected cost is benchmarked. By comparison, adding BMI (when morbid obesity is already documented) generally does not increase HCC capture, and fracture sequelae typically does not drive HCC risk scoring in the same way. Bipolar disorder may map to an HCC, but its relative impact is generally lower than metastatic cancer, making melanoma status the highest-value clarification.
NEW QUESTION # 50
Which of the following is a form of a cardiac condition that may be treated with a beta-blocker?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Beta-blockers are commonly used in the management of coronary artery disease (CAD) because they lower heart rate, decrease myocardial contractility, and reduce oxygen demand-key goals in treating stable angina and in secondary prevention after myocardial infarction. In outpatient chart review, ACDIS-focused clinical documentation education emphasizes linking the medication to the condition being managed (e.g., "CAD with angina-on metoprolol for symptom control" or "history of MI-on beta-blocker for secondary prevention") to support accurate diagnosis reporting and demonstrate ongoing assessment and treatment. By contrast, third-degree (complete) heart block and sinus bradycardia are conditions where beta-blockers are typically avoided or used only with extreme caution because they can worsen conduction delay and slow the heart rate further. Cardiomyopathy can sometimes be treated with certain evidence-based beta-blockers when the clinical context is systolic heart failure, but the option most broadly and reliably associated with beta-blocker treatment in standard outpatient practice and documentation is CAD.
NEW QUESTION # 51
An ACO with 50,000 beneficiaries just completed its first year of a 3-year contract where the final scores were quality 90%; expected costs were $50 million, and actual costs were $52 million. The shared savings rate determined by CMS was 50%. Which of the following is MOST accurate and applies for the ACO?
Answer: A
Explanation:
In MSSP-style ACO financial reconciliation, performance is evaluated against a benchmark (expected costs). Here, the ACO's actual spending ($52M) exceeds the expected benchmark ($50M) by $2M, meaning the ACO generated shared losses rather than savings. In risk-bearing ACO arrangements, when costs exceed the benchmark and the ACO is in a track that includes downside risk, the organization may owe CMS a portion of those losses. The shared savings/loss rate (50% in this scenario) represents the percentage of the difference from the benchmark that the ACO shares with CMS, assuming applicable thresholds are met. Thus, instead of receiving a shared savings payment, the ACO would be accountable to pay back a share of the excess spending (conceptually 50% of the $2M overage, if all model requirements are satisfied). Option D is not correct because reconciliation is typically performed on a performance-year basis rather than only at the end of the full agreement period, and option C is not how MSSP eligibility works.
NEW QUESTION # 52
Which of the following statements is true regarding RADV reviews?
Answer: D
Explanation:
RADV (Risk Adjustment Data Validation) is an audit process used to validate that risk-adjusting diagnoses submitted for payment are supported by compliant medical record documentation. A foundational requirement is that the record is properly authenticated by an acceptable provider-meaning the documentation must be attributable to the treating clinician through a valid signature. In compliant documentation standards emphasized in outpatient CDI education, acceptable authentication may be a traditional hand-written signature or an electronic signature/attestation that meets organizational and regulatory policy. Option B is not correct because diagnoses do not have to appear only on a facesheet or "final diagnosis" list; they may be supported within the body of the note (assessment/plan, problem-based charting, or other authenticated sections) as long as they are clearly documented and clinically supported. Options A and D are not reliably true statements in a general RADV context because RADV focuses on diagnoses supported by appropriate provider documentation and acceptable encounter record criteria; "technician-assigned" diagnoses are not acceptable, and radiology documentation alone may not meet all validation expectations depending on the program's rules and encounter context.
NEW QUESTION # 53
ICD-10-CM code assignment can be supported by documentation from someone other than the patient's provider in which of the following circumstances?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Outpatient ICD-10-CM guidance allows certain code elements to be based on documentation from clinicians other than the patient's diagnosing provider when those elements are considered objective, routinely assessed, and commonly documented by nursing or ancillary staff. A key example is pressure ulcer staging, which is frequently assessed and documented by wound care nurses and other qualified clinicians as part of routine skin/wound evaluation. Because the stage drives code specificity and is an observable clinical finding, coders may use non-provider documentation to assign the stage when it is clearly documented and not contradicted by the provider record. In contrast, items such as the type of obesity generally require provider diagnosis/clinical assessment rather than ancillary documentation alone. Similarly, while status conditions (like amputations or ostomies) may be observed, the coding guidelines do not broadly permit assigning these diagnoses solely from non-provider documentation without provider confirmation, unless the chart otherwise supports it. Therefore, among the choices, pressure ulcer stage is the appropriate circumstance where non-provider documentation can support ICD-10-CM assignment.
NEW QUESTION # 54
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