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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Physician Roles (CanMEDS Framework) | - Collaborator
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>> MCCQE Valid Test Syllabus <<
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NEW QUESTION # 20
A 40-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of severe abdominal pain and recurrent vomiting. He has a long-term history of alcohol use disorder. His blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, and his heart rate is 120/min. The pain is located mostly in the epigastrium but radiates to the right upper quadrant and to his back. Radiographs of the abdomen and chest reveal some distended small bowel loops in his upper abdomen. Laboratory work results are pending. After fluid resuscitation, which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: E
Explanation:
The clinical picture is most consistent with acute pancreatitis (alcohol-related, epigastric pain radiating to back, vomiting, and ileus). CT abdomen with contrast is the best diagnostic tool if the diagnosis is uncertain or complications are suspected.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gastroenterology, "Pancreatitis":
"CT abdomen is indicated when diagnosis is unclear, symptoms are severe, or complications (e.g., necrosis, ileus) are suspected." MCCQE1 Objectives (Gastroenterology > 47-1: Acute Abdominal Pain):
"Candidates must investigate acute epigastric pain appropriately, especially in the context of alcohol use and systemic features." Ultrasound (B) is first-line for gallstones but not best here. Laparotomy (A) is not warranted without peritonitis or perforation. Endoscopy (D) is not indicated. Sengstaken-Blakemore (E) is for variceal bleeding, which is not suspected here.
NEW QUESTION # 21
A 35-year-old woman presents to your clinic with double vision and a gritty sensation in her eyes for the past several weeks. On examination, you notice her eyes are bulging. There is inflammation of her conjunctivae and swelling around her eyes. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: E
Explanation:
The findings of exophthalmos (bulging eyes), conjunctival inflammation, and periorbital swelling are hallmark features of Graves ophthalmopathy, a manifestation of autoimmune hyperthyroidism.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Endocrinology, "Thyroid Disorders":
"Graves ophthalmopathy: proptosis, periorbital edema, conjunctivitis, and diplopia due to extraocular muscle involvement. Often independent of thyroid levels." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 36-1: Thyroid Disease):
"Candidates must recognize and manage Graves disease and its ocular manifestations." Myasthenia gravis may cause diplopia but not proptosis or swelling. Pseudotumor and cellulitis are painful and acute. Allergic conjunctivitis is itchy but lacks proptosis.
NEW QUESTION # 22
A 31-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, presents to Labour and Delivery with regular contractions at approximately 24 weeks' gestation. As you review her prenatal records, which one of the following is the most reliable way of establishing gestational age?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Accurate determination of gestational age is essential, particularly in suspected preterm labour at 24 weeks.
MCCQE objectives emphasize that first-trimester ultrasound , specifically measurement of the crown-rump length (CRL) at 8-12 weeks , is the most reliable method for dating a pregnancy. In early gestation, biological variation in fetal size is minimal, making CRL highly accurate (±3-5 days).
Dating by last menstrual period (LMP) is less reliable due to recall error, irregular cycles, or ovulation variability. Second-trimester ultrasound provides reasonable accuracy but is less precise than first-trimester CRL (±7-10 days). Third-trimester ultrasound is the least accurate for dating because fetal growth variation increases significantly (±2-3 weeks). Symphysis-fundal height is useful for monitoring growth trends but not for precise dating.
In preterm labour management, correct gestational age influences decisions about corticosteroids, magnesium sulfate for neuroprotection, and neonatal resuscitation planning. Therefore, first-trimester CRL measurement is the gold standard for establishing gestational age.
NEW QUESTION # 23
A 44-year-old woman presents to the office to discuss contraception. During the gynecologic examination, you notice an anterior cystocele to the hymenal ring. The woman denies any bulge symptoms but does report dribbling of urine, especially when she coughs or jogs.
Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
This patient has stress urinary incontinence and an incidental cystocele. First-line management of mild pelvic organ prolapse and stress incontinence includes pelvic floor physiotherapy (e.g., Kegel exercises). Surgical options are reserved for severe or refractory cases.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, Pelvic Floor Disorders:
"For asymptomatic prolapse or mild stress incontinence, recommend pelvic floor strengthening. Conservative management is preferred before surgical referral." MCCQE1 Objectives - Gynecology > Urogynecology:
"Candidates should initiate pelvic floor therapy in women with mild prolapse or urinary leakage prior to specialist referral." Topical estrogen (B) helps with atrophic vaginitis, not stress incontinence. Hysterectomy (A) and specialist referral (C) are premature. Avoiding impact sports (E) is not a treatment.
NEW QUESTION # 24
A 12-year-old girl is brought to your clinic by her parents 6 weeks after experiencing a minimally displaced buckle fracture of her distal radius. It was immobilized in a cast for 3 weeks. On examination, she supports her forearm with the opposite hand. She is unwilling to move her elbow, wrist, and fingers. The findings of her neurovascular examination are normal, and the soft tissue is supple. A repeat radiograph shows bony union. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS type I) is the most likely diagnosis because the child has persistent, function-limiting pain behavior and marked unwillingness to move the entire limb despite a minor fracture that is now healed radiographically and has a normal neurovascular exam. MCCQE objectives emphasize recognizing pain that is disproportionate to tissue injury and persists beyond expected healing, often accompanied by guarding and fear of movement. CRPS can occur after fractures or immobilization and may present with severe allodynia, hyperalgesia, edema, color/temperature changes, and motor dysfunction; however, early cases may primarily show avoidance of movement and pain with otherwise normal objective findings.
An unrecognized scaphoid fracture would cause localized wrist pain (classically snuffbox tenderness) rather than refusal to move elbow, wrist, and fingers, and would not be explained by a distal radius buckle fracture that has united. Ischemic (Volkmann) contracture would involve a tense forearm, fixed flexion deformity, and neurovascular compromise. Median nerve compression would produce sensory changes and thenar weakness.
School avoidance alone does not explain the post-injury limb-protective pattern with normal healing.
Management focuses on reassurance, early mobilization, physiotherapy, and multidisciplinary pain strategies.
NEW QUESTION # 25
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