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| Certification Vendor: | EC-COUNCIL |
|---|---|
| Exam Name: | EC-Council Digital Forensics Essentials (DFE) |
| Exam Number: | 112-57 |
| Certificate Validity Period: | 3 years |
| Passing Score: | 70% |
| Exam Price: | Free / $0 USD |
| Available Languages: | English |
| Related Certifications: | Network Defense Essentials (NDE) Ethical Hacking Essentials (EHE) |
| Exam Duration: | 120 minutes |
| Real Exam Qty: | 75 |
| Exam Format: | Multiple Choice Questions |
| Recommended Training: | Official Digital Forensics Essentials Course |
| Exam Registration: | EC-Council Exam Center |
| Sample Questions: | EC-COUNCIL 112-57 Sample Questions |
| Exam Way: | Online proctored exam / Authorized testing centers |
| Pre Condition: | No formal prerequisites; basic IT knowledge recommended |
| Official Syllabus URL: | https://www.eccouncil.org/train-certify/digital-forensics-essentials-dfe/ |
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NEW QUESTION # 19
An organization decided to strengthen the security of its network by studying and analyzing the behavior of attackers. For this purpose, Steven, a security analyst, was instructed to deploy a device to bait attackers.
Steven selected a solution that appears to contain very useful information to lure attackers and find their locations and techniques.
Identify the type of device deployed by Steven in the above scenario.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Ahoneypotis a deliberately deployed decoy system or service designed toattract attackersby appearing valuable or vulnerable, thereby enabling defenders to observe malicious behavior in a controlled manner.
Digital forensics and incident response references describe honeypots as tools forthreat intelligence and evidence collection, because they can record interaction details such as connection sources, exploited services, commands executed, malware dropped, and attempted privilege escalation. This directly matches the scenario: Steven deployed something that "appears to contain very useful information" tolure attackersand help identify theirlocations and techniques. Honeypots are typically instrumented with extensive logging and monitoring, making them especially useful for building timelines, extracting indicators of compromise, and understanding adversary tactics, techniques, and procedures.
The other options do not align with the "bait attackers" goal. AnIDSprimarily detects and alerts on suspicious activity but is not intended to impersonate a valuable target. Afirewallenforces access control rules to block
/allow traffic, not entice attackers. Arouterforwards packets and provides network connectivity; it is not a deception platform. Therefore, the device type described is aHoneypot (C).
NEW QUESTION # 20
Bob, a forensic specialist at a newly established NGO, discovered a security loophole in the NGO's web application, which unintentionally reveals early enrolled NGO members' biodata to attackers. Bob immediately employed a content filtering mechanism to protect all the NGO's data sources and prevent further damage.
Identify the web application threat identified by Bob in the above scenario.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The scenario describes a web application thatunintentionally reveals sensitive member biodatato attackers.
This is a classic case ofinformation leakage, where confidential or private data becomes exposed due to poor access control, improper output handling, verbose error messages, misconfigured endpoints, insecure direct object references, or unintended exposure through pages, APIs, backups, or logs. In forensic and web security documentation, information leakage is defined by theunauthorized disclosure of data, even if the attacker does not alter the system. The key indicator here is that the application is "revealing" biodata-meaning confidentiality is breached.
Bob's response-using acontent filtering mechanism-also aligns with mitigating data exposure. Content filtering can prevent sensitive fields from being returned, mask personally identifiable information, restrict responses based on user role, and sanitize outputs before they leave the server.
The other options do not match the described impact.Buffer overflowis a low-level memory corruption vulnerability, typically associated with native code execution rather than accidental biodata exposure.
Authentication hijackinginvolves taking over sessions/credentials, andcookie poisoninginvolves manipulating cookie values to gain privileges or alter behavior-neither is explicitly indicated. Therefore, the identified threat isInformation leakage (B).
NEW QUESTION # 21
Jennifer, a forensics investigation team member, was inspecting a compromised system. After gathering all the evidence related to the compromised system, she disconnected the system from the network to stop the spread of the incident to other systems.
Identify the role played by Jennifer in the forensics investigation.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Jennifer's actions match the responsibilities of anincident responder, whose job spans immediatecontainment, preservation, and stabilizationactivities during an active or recently active security incident. In standard digital forensics and incident response (DFIR) procedures, responders first take steps topreserve evidence(e.g., documenting the scene, capturing volatile data when appropriate, and collecting relevant system artifacts) and then executecontainment measuresto prevent further harm. Disconnecting a compromised host from the network is a classic containment control used to stop malware propagation, block command-and-control communications, and prevent lateral movement to other systems.
Anincident analyzertypically focuses on deeper technical analysis-timeline reconstruction, root cause determination, and correlating artifacts across hosts and logs-rather than performing immediate containment.
Anevidence manageris primarily responsible for maintaining evidence integrity, chain of custody, storage, labeling, and access control, not operational containment. Anexpert witnessprovides formal testimony and interpretation in legal or disciplinary proceedings and is not usually involved in live containment actions.
Since Jennifer bothgathered evidenceand thenisolated the system to stop spread, the role most consistent with documented DFIR responsibilities isIncident responder (A).
NEW QUESTION # 22
Harry, a security professional, was hired to identify the details of an attack that was initiated on a Windows system. In this process, Harry decided to check the logs of currently running applications and the information related to previously uninstalled or removed applications for suspicious events.
Which of the following folders in a Windows system stores information on applications run on the system?
Answer: C
Explanation:
On Windows systems, thePrefetchfeature records execution-related artifacts to speed up subsequent program launches. When an executable is run, Windows often creates a.pf prefetch fileinC:\Windows\Prefetchthat contains valuable forensic indicators such as the executable name (mapped into the prefetch filename), last run time(s) (depending on Windows version), run count (in many versions), and a list of files and directories referenced during startup. Because these artifacts can persist even after an application is lateruninstalled or deleted, investigators commonly use the Prefetch directory to demonstrate that a program executed on a host and to help build timelines around suspicious activity. This is especially useful in intrusion investigations for identifying the execution of attacker tools, droppers, scripts launched via interpreters, or renamed binaries.
The other options are not standard repositories for program execution history.C:\Windows\debugmay contain specific debug logs for certain components but is not the canonical execution-tracking folder.C:
\Windows\BookandC:\subdirare not standard Windows forensic artifact locations. Therefore, the folder that stores information on applications run on the system isC:\Windows\Prefetch (C).
NEW QUESTION # 23
Below are the various steps involved in forensic readiness planning.
Keep an incident response team ready to review the incident and preserve the evidence.
Create a process for documenting the procedure.
Identify the potential evidence required for an incident.
Determine the sources of evidence.
Establish a legal advisory board to guide the investigation process.
Identify if the incident requires full or formal investigation.
Establish a policy for securely handling and storing the collected evidence.
Define a policy that determines the pathway to legally extract electronic evidence with minimal disruption.
Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in forensic readiness planning.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Forensic readiness planning focuses on ensuring an organization canlegally, efficiently, and reliablycollect usable digital evidence before an incident occurs. The planning sequence typically begins by definingwhat evidence would be neededto support likely incidents (3) and then mappingwhere that evidence residesacross systems, services, logs, endpoints, and network components (4). Once evidence needs and sources are known, readiness requires alegally compliant extraction pathwaythat minimizes business disruption and prevents evidence contamination (8). After defining extraction, an organization must formalizesecure handling and storage policies(chain of custody, access control, retention, integrity protection) so collected evidence remains admissible and trustworthy (7).
With those foundations in place, the organization can define decision criteria forwhen an event becomes a formal investigationand triggers deeper forensic procedures (6). A structureddocumentation processis then set so actions taken during acquisition and analysis are repeatable and defensible (2). Governance is reinforced by establishinglegal oversight/advisory supportto ensure compliance with jurisdictional requirements and internal policy (5). Finally, the plan is operationalized by ensuring anincident response team is preparedto preserve evidence promptly when incidents occur (1). Hence,3#4#8#7#6#2#5#1is the correct sequence.
NEW QUESTION # 24
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