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NCLEX-RN exam is computer-adaptive, meaning that the difficulty level of the questions presented to the test-taker is based on their individual performance. NCLEX-RN Exam is composed of a minimum of 75 questions and a maximum of 265 questions, with a time limit of six hours. The test is broken down into four categories: Safe and Effective Care Environment, Health Promotion and Maintenance, Psychosocial Integrity, and Physiological Integrity.

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NCLEX-RN exam is a computerized adaptive test (CAT), which means that the difficulty of the questions is adjusted based on the test-taker’s performance. NCLEX-RN exam is composed of between 75 and 265 questions, and the test-taker must answer a minimum of 75 questions in order to pass. NCLEX-RN Exam covers a wide range of topics, including pharmacology, nursing care of patients with acute and chronic illnesses, and ethical and legal considerations in nursing practice.

NCLEX National Council Licensure Examination(NCLEX-RN) Sample Questions (Q488-Q493):

NEW QUESTION # 488
A 45-year-old client diagnosed with major depression is scheduled for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) in the morning. Which of the following medications are routinely administered either before or during ECT?

Answer: A

Explanation:
(A) Thioridazine (an antipsychotic drug), lithium (an antimanic drug), and benztropine (an antiparkinsonism agent) are generally administered to treat schizophrenic and bipolar disorders. (B) Atropine (a cholinergic blocker), sodium brevitol (a shortacting anesthetic), and succinylcholine (a neuromuscular blocker) are administered either before or during ECT to coun teract bradycardia and to provide anesthesia and total muscle relaxation. (C) These are electrolyte substances administered to correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances in the body. (D) Carbamazepine (an anticonvulsant), haldoperidol (an antipsychotic), and trihexyphenydyl (an antiparkinsonism agent) are usually administered in psychiatric settings to control problems associated with psychotic behavior.


NEW QUESTION # 489
The nurse caring for a client who has pneumonia, which is caused by a gram-positive bacteria, inspects her sputum. Because the client's pneumonia is caused by a gram-positive bacteria, the nurse experts to find the sputum to be:

Answer: D

Explanation:
Section: Questions Set D
Explanation:
(A) Bright red sputum with streaks is associated with pneumonia caused by gram-negative bacteria, such as Klebsiellapneumonia. (B) Pneumococcal pneumonia, caused by gram-positive bacteria, has a characteristic productive cough with green or rust-colored sputum. (C) Green-colored sputum is more characteristic of Pseudomonasthan of gram-positive bacterial pneumonia. (D) Pink-tinged and frothy sputum is more characteristic of pulmonary edema than of gram-positive bacterial pneumonia.


NEW QUESTION # 490
A client has a history of alcoholism. He is currently diagnosed with cirrhosis of the liver. The nurse would expect him to be on which type of diet?

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
(A) A high-protein diet is contraindicated in hepatic disease. (B) High carbohydrates provide high-caloric content to prevent tissue catabolism. (C) A low-fat 2-g sodium diet is a cardiac diet; however, a low-fat diet would be beneficial. (D) A high-protein and high-fat diet is contraindicated in hepatic disease.


NEW QUESTION # 491
A 40-year-old client is admitted to the coronary care unit with chest pain and shortness of breath. The physician diagnosed an anterior wall myocardial infarction.
What tests should the nurse anticipate?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Reticulocyte count measures the number of immature erythrocytes. CPK is an enzyme released from injured myocardial tissue. (B) Aspartate transaminase is an enzyme released from injured myocardial tissue.
Alanine transaminase is an enzyme released for general tissue destruction, which is specific for liver injury.
(C) Sedimentation rate is a nonspecific test for inflammation. (D) Lactic dehydrogenase and CPK are enzymes released from injured myocardial tissue.


NEW QUESTION # 492
A client is being discharged on warfarin (Coumadin), an oral anticoagulant. The nurse instructs him about using this drug. Which following response by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

Answer: B

Explanation:
(A) Using an electric razor prevents the risk of cuts while shaving. (B) Any physician or dentist should be informed of anticoagulant therapy because of the risk of bleeding due to a prolonged PT. (C) The client should be instructed to consult with his physician. Aspirin is avoided because it potentiates the affects of oral anticoagulants by interfering with platelet aggregation. (D) Identification bracelets are necessary to direct treatment, especially in an emergency situation.


NEW QUESTION # 493
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