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The CompTIA CS0-003 certification exam is one of the top-rated and valuable credentials in the CompTIA world. This CompTIA CS0-003 exam questions is designed to validate the candidate's skills and knowledge. With CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam exam dumps everyone can upgrade their expertise and knowledge level. By doing this the successful CS0-003 Exam candidates can gain several personal and professional benefits in their career and achieve their professional career objectives in a short time period.
CompTIA CS0-003 (CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification) Exam is designed to assess the knowledge and skills of candidates in the field of cybersecurity analysis. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification exam is an esteemed qualification for cybersecurity analysts and is globally recognized in the industry. It is an intermediate-level certification, which means that candidates are required to have some prior knowledge and experience in this field before attempting the exam.
NEW QUESTION # 47
An organization wants to establish a disaster recovery plan for critical applications that are hosted on premises. Which of the following is the first step to prepare for supporting this new requirement?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The first step in building a disaster recovery plan (DRP) for critical on-prem applications is to determine what is actually "critical" to the business, how long the organization can tolerate those applications being down, and therefore what restoration order (prioritization) is required. That prioritization must come from business
/data owners and stakeholders, because they understand operational dependencies, business impact, and acceptable downtime.
This is essentially the start of a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) and related continuity prioritization work, which precedes choices like vendors, contracts, or site geography. You don't select a DR site/vendor or negotiate agreements until you know which systems must be restored first and what recovery objectives you must meet.
Supporting exact extracts:
* The All-in-One CS0-003 guide explains that the foundation is identifying critical systems and determining tolerable outage time (used to prioritize restoration):Exact extract (All-in-One Exam Guide): "The key is to determine which of the organization's critical systems are needed for survival and then estimate the outage time that can be tolerated by the organization..." It then connects those determinations directly to prioritization:Exact extract (All-in-One Exam Guide): "These estimates will help you determine how to prioritize response team efforts to restore these assets."
* The Secbay Press CS0-003 guide lays out the early BIA/risk identification steps in order, starting with identifying what's critical before recovery priorities:Exact extract (Secbay Press): "1. Identify critical processes and resources2. Identify outage impacts and estimate downtime3. Identify resource requirements4. Identify recovery priorities" Why the other options are not the first step:
* A / C (vendor selection / vendor agreements): those come after requirements are defined (RTO/MTD, criticality, order of restoration).
* D (define geographic area): location considerations are important, but they are driven by requirements and constraints discovered during BIA/continuity prioritization (what needs to be recovered, how fast, and with what dependencies).
References (CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 documents / study guides used):
* Mya Heath et al., CompTIA CySA+ All-in-One Exam Guide (CS0-003): determine critical systems and tolerable outage time; used to prioritize restoration
* Secbay Press, CompTIA CySA+ Exam Prep Guide (CS0-003): BIA / risk identification process steps (identify critical processes/resources # estimate downtime # recovery priorities)
NEW QUESTION # 48
A manufacturer has hired a third-party consultant to assess the security of an OT network that includes both fragile and legacy equipment. Which of the following must be considered to ensure the consultant does no harm to operations?
Answer: B
Explanation:
In environments with fragile and legacy equipment, passive scanning is preferred to prevent any potential disruptions that active scanning might cause.
When assessing the security of an Operational Technology (OT) network, especially one with fragile and legacy equipment, it's crucial to use passive instead of active vulnerability scans.
Active scanning can sometimes disrupt the operation of sensitive or older equipment. Passive scanning listens to network traffic without sending probing requests, thus minimizing the risk of disruption.
NEW QUESTION # 49
A recent zero-day vulnerability is being actively exploited, requires no user interaction or privilege escalation, and has a significant impact to confidentiality and integrity but not to availability. Which of the following CVE metrics would be most accurate for this zero-day threat?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
This answer matches the description of the zero-day threat. The attack vector is network (AV:N), the attack complexity is low (AC:L), no privileges are required (PR:N), no user interaction is required (UI:N), the scope is unchanged (S:U), the confidentiality and integrity impacts are high (C:H/I:H), and the availability impact is low (A:L). Official References: https://nvd.nist.gov/vuln-metrics/cvss
NEW QUESTION # 50
A security audit for unsecured network services was conducted, and the following output was generated:
Which of the following services should the security team investigate further? (Select two).
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
The output shows the results of a port scan, which is a technique used to identify open ports and services running on a network host. Port scanning can be used by attackers to discover potential vulnerabilities and exploit them, or by defenders to assess the security posture and configuration of their network devices1 The output lists six ports that are open on the target host, along with the service name and version associated with each port. The service name indicates the type of application or protocol that is using the port, while the version indicates the specific release or update of the service. The service name and version can provide useful information for both attackers and defenders, as they can reveal the capabilities, features, and weaknesses of the service.
Among the six ports listed, two are particularly risky and should be investigated further by the security team:
port 23 and port 636.
Port 23 is used by Telnet, which is an old and insecure protocol for remote login and command execution.
Telnet does not encrypt any data transmitted over the network, including usernames and passwords, which makes it vulnerable to eavesdropping, interception, and modification by attackers. Telnet also has many known vulnerabilities that can allow attackers to gain unauthorized access, execute arbitrary commands, or cause denial-of-service attacks on the target host23 Port 636 is used by LDAP over SSL/TLS (LDAPS), which is a protocol for accessing and modifying directory services over a secure connection. LDAPS encrypts the data exchanged between the client and the server using SSL/TLS certificates, which provide authentication, confidentiality, and integrity. However, LDAPS can also be vulnerable to attacks if the certificates are not properly configured, verified, or updated.
For example, attackers can use self-signed or expired certificates to perform man-in-the-middle attacks, spoofing attacks, or certificate revocation attacks on LDAPS connections.
Therefore, the security team should investigate further why port 23 and port 636 are open on the target host, and what services are running on them. The security team should also consider disabling or replacing these services with more secure alternatives, such as SSH for port 23 and StartTLS for port 6362
NEW QUESTION # 51
Which of the following stakeholders are most likely to receive a vulnerability scan report?
(Choose two.)
Answer: C,F
NEW QUESTION # 52
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