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| Physician Roles (CanMEDS Framework) | - Medical Expert
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NEW QUESTION # 279
A 45-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department with chest pain. He has no significant medical history. He is anxious and agitated, and he reports severe central chest pain that began about 90 minutes ago.
His vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 200/110 mm Hg, heart rate 140/min, respiratory rate 30/min, oxygen saturation 98% on supplemental oxygen. Physical examination reveals a restless and slightly tremulous man. Pupils are 7 mm reactive. There are no focal neurologic signs. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. The 12-lead electrocardiogram reveals sinus tachycardia; findings are otherwise normal. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this clinical presentation?
Answer: C
Explanation:
This presentation most strongly suggests cocaine intoxication . MCCQE objectives emphasize recognizing toxidromes and life-threatening causes of chest pain. Cocaine is a potent sympathomimetic that increases catecholamines and causes marked hypertension, tachycardia, agitation/anxiety, tremor, tachypnea, and mydriasis , and it can precipitate severe chest pain via coronary vasospasm, increased myocardial oxygen demand, platelet activation, and potential aortic dissection. An ECG may show only sinus tachycardia early despite significant ischemic risk. In contrast, opioids (heroin, oxycodone) typically cause CNS depression, miosis , and respiratory depression. Alcohol intoxication does not usually cause extreme hypertension, mydriasis, and severe sympathomimetic agitation. Cannabis may cause anxiety and tachycardia but is less likely to produce this degree of hypertension and classic stimulant features. Therefore, cocaine best explains the combination of acute severe chest pain with a prominent sympathetic toxidrome. Immediate priorities include cardiac evaluation and treating stimulant toxicity (e.g., benzodiazepines and blood pressure control while avoiding isolated beta-blockade).
NEW QUESTION # 280
A 79-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset severe chest and back pain that started 1 hour ago. She has a history of hypertension and looks unwell. Her vital signs are as follows:
blood pressure 168/108 mm Hg, heart rate 110/min, respiratory rate 22/min, temperature 36.7°C. Findings of a physical examination of the chest and abdomen are normal. An urgent computed tomography (CT) scan of the chest and abdomen shows an aortic dissection extending from the descending thoracic aorta to the upper abdominal aorta. The branches of the abdominal aorta are patent. Following initial resuscitation, which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: E
Explanation:
This patient has a Stanford type B aortic dissection , involving the descending thoracic aorta distal to the left subclavian artery, with no evidence of branch vessel compromise or rupture. MCCQE objectives emphasize that uncomplicated type B dissections are managed medically , whereas type A dissections (ascending aorta) require urgent surgical repair.
The immediate priority is to reduce shear stress on the aortic wall by controlling heart rate and blood pressure
. Intravenous beta-blockers such as labetalol or esmolol are first-line therapy. The goal is to reduce heart rate to approximately 60 bpm and lower systolic blood pressure to 100-120 mm Hg. This decreases the force of left ventricular contraction (dP/dt), limiting propagation of the dissection.
Endovascular or open repair is reserved for complicated cases (e.g., malperfusion, rupture, refractory pain, uncontrolled hypertension). Anticoagulation with heparin is contraindicated due to bleeding risk. Observation alone without blood pressure control is inappropriate.
Therefore, intravenous labetalol is the best next step.
NEW QUESTION # 281
A prepubertal 9-year-old girl with severe developmental disability is brought to your office by her parents.
They are seeing you to discuss some difficulties that might occur with puberty. They are afraid that menses will complicate hygiene care and they have heard of significant mood/behavioural changes in this population when menses occur. Which one of the following recommendations is the most appropriate?
Answer: A
Explanation:
In girls with developmental disabilities, menstrual management should follow the same ethical and clinical principles as for other adolescents, emphasizing least invasive, reversible options and respect for future autonomy. Menstrual suppression may be appropriate to assist with hygiene and quality of life; however, hormonal methods are generally initiated after the onset of menarche to confirm pubertal development and exclude underlying endocrine disorders. Therefore, extended progestin-only therapy (e.g., depot medroxyprogesterone acetate) should not be started before menses begin. Hysterectomy is inappropriate as first-line management due to its irreversible nature, surgical risks, and significant ethical concerns regarding sterilization. Continuous combined oral contraceptives are not contraindicated and are commonly used for therapeutic amenorrhea. Evidence does not show consistent worsening of behavioural symptoms with appropriate hormonal suppression. Girls with developmental disabilities typically experience normal pubertal progression. MCCQE objectives emphasize patient-centered care, least restrictive interventions, ethical considerations in consent and capacity, and appropriate menstrual management strategies in adolescents with special needs.
NEW QUESTION # 282
A 40-year-old woman has not left her house for 6 months. She says that she is trying to avoid the intense anxiety, palpitations, tremors, sweating, dizziness, choking sensation, and breathlessness that develops when she leaves home. Which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: C
Explanation:
This patient's symptoms are consistent with panic disorder with agoraphobia , characterized by recurrent panic attacks and avoidance of places where escape may be difficult. She has avoided leaving her home for 6 months due to fear of panic symptoms (palpitations, tremors, sweating, dyspnea, choking sensation), which is classic for agoraphobia.
MCCQE objectives emphasize that first-line management includes cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) with graded exposure therapy , which involves gradual, systematic exposure to feared situations (e.g., short walks progressing to longer distances). Encouraging incremental exposure directly addresses avoidance behavior and reduces anxiety over time.
Lithium is used for bipolar disorder, not panic disorder. Chlorpromazine (an antipsychotic) is not first-line and carries unnecessary side effects. Reassurance alone is insufficient because panic disorder significantly impairs functioning. Hospitalization is not indicated unless there is suicidality or inability to care for oneself.
Therefore, gradual exposure through increasing walks is the most appropriate next step, consistent with evidence-based management of panic disorder with agoraphobia.
NEW QUESTION # 283
A 10-year-old boy and his mother present to your office with a concern about handwashing. The mother explains that her son has been at a new school for the past month and that teachers have noticed that he is washing his hands all day. He has also hidden hand sanitizer in his desk. The hand-cleaning is a response to a constant anxiety that his hands are dirty, and that he might pass an infection to someone. Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
Answer: B
Explanation:
This child demonstrates classic features of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD): intrusive contamination fears (obsession) and repetitive handwashing behaviors (compulsion) performed to reduce anxiety. The symptoms are excessive, impairing school function, and persist beyond normal developmental concerns.
According to MCCQE objectives, first-line treatment for mild to moderate pediatric OCD is cognitive- behavioral therapy (CBT) with exposure and response prevention (ERP). ERP involves gradual exposure to feared contaminants while preventing the compulsive handwashing response, thereby reducing anxiety through habituation and cognitive restructuring. Pharmacologic treatment with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (e.g., fluoxetine) is indicated for moderate to severe cases or when CBT alone is insufficient, but it is not the preferred initial intervention when psychotherapy is accessible. Risperidone is not first-line and may be considered only as augmentation in refractory cases. Changing schools or providing a teaching assistant does not address the underlying anxiety disorder. Early evidence-based intervention improves prognosis and functional outcomes in pediatric OCD.
NEW QUESTION # 284
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