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>> Guaranteed CPHRM Questions Answers <<
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NEW QUESTION # 55
A risk manager identifies a problem with the informed consent process in the organization. All of the following are appropriate interventions EXCEPT
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards endorsed by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, system-level issues in the informed consent process should first be addressed through quality improvement and educational interventions rather than immediate punitive action.
Conducting a medical record audit is an appropriate first step to identify patterns of incomplete documentation and determine whether the problem is isolated or systemic. Reviewing and revising policies and procedures ensures alignment with current legal standards and clarifies responsibilities for obtaining and documenting consent. Providing targeted education to physicians, nurses, and office staff reinforces understanding of required elements, including discussion of risks, benefits, alternatives, and patient questions.
Reporting physicians with incomplete consent forms directly to peer review may be appropriate in cases of persistent noncompliance or willful disregard of standards. However, when a systemic process problem is identified, immediate referral to peer review is not the appropriate primary intervention and may undermine a just culture approach.
Clinical and patient safety objectives emphasize root cause identification, education, and process improvement before disciplinary escalation. Therefore, reporting physicians to peer review in this context represents the inappropriate intervention.
NEW QUESTION # 56
A clear directive to a nurse is:
Answer: A
Explanation:
Clear directives are specific, measurable, and time-bound-reducing ambiguity and variability that drive frontline error. "Monitor every so often" becomes safer when translated into a defined interval (e.g., every 15 minutes for the first hour, then hourly), with documentation requirements and escalation triggers. Risk management objectives emphasize standard work and reliable monitoring for high-risk equipment such as infusion pumps because device malfunction or programming errors can rapidly cause harm. Clear directives also support accountability and defensibility: they demonstrate the organization defined expectations and trained staff accordingly. Vague instructions ("be careful") do not reliably change behavior or outcomes. In high-reliability care, clarity is a safety barrier: it reduces cognitive load, prevents missed steps, and improves handoffs between staff by making the plan visible and verifiable.
NEW QUESTION # 57
All of the following are valid reasons for performing risk management review of policies and procedures EXCEPT
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, periodic review of policies and procedures is essential to ensure alignment with current laws, regulatory standards, accreditation requirements, and best practices. Reviewing policies helps ensure consistency between written procedures and actual clinical practice, thereby reducing liability exposure.
Policy review also supports identification of potential risk exposures by detecting outdated language, conflicting guidance, or gaps in processes that could lead to adverse events. Additionally, monitoring compliance with standards-such as federal regulations, state statutes, and accreditation requirements-is a central purpose of policy review, ensuring that organizational practices meet required benchmarks.
Maintaining staff competency, however, is primarily addressed through education, training programs, credentialing, and performance evaluation processes. While policies provide guidance for staff conduct, competency assessment is not the primary objective of policy review itself.
Health Care Operations objectives emphasize governance oversight, regulatory compliance, and risk mitigation through clear, current policies. Therefore, maintaining staff competency is not a direct reason for performing risk management review of policies and procedures, making it the correct exception.
NEW QUESTION # 58
People make fewer errors when:
Answer: B
Explanation:
Team-based care reduces errors by improving communication, cross-monitoring, workload distribution, and escalation when risk increases. TeamSTEPPS and related patient safety evidence show teamwork training can improve safety culture and reduce clinical error rates by creating predictable behaviors-briefs, huddles, check-backs, and mutual support. From a risk management standpoint, teamwork is a high-leverage control because many serious adverse events involve coordination failures (handoffs, unclear ownership, missed deterioration). Effective teams also reduce "single-point-of-failure" risk; when one clinician misses something, another can catch it. Organizations operationalize this through standardized communication (SBAR), structured handoffs, simulation, and leadership support for psychological safety so staff speak up.
Team functioning is therefore not "soft skill"-it is a measurable safety barrier that reduces preventable harm and strengthens reliability in complex, high-acuity environments.
NEW QUESTION # 59
An unstable patient in the emergency department needs transfer to another hospital. Which of the following statements is true regarding the refusal of an on-call physician to treat this patient?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Under Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, obligations under the Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act EMTALA govern on-call physician responsibilities. When a hospital maintains an on-call roster to provide specialty services for emergency department patients, physicians listed on call are required to respond and participate in the evaluation and stabilization of patients with emergency medical conditions.
An on-call physician may only be relieved of duty if legitimately unavailable due to circumstances beyond their control, such as actively caring for another patient or being otherwise unable to respond in accordance with hospital policy. Refusal to treat for convenience or non-clinical reasons may constitute an EMTALA violation and expose both the hospital and physician to regulatory penalties.
A blanket right to refuse care is inconsistent with EMTALA requirements. While financial discrimination is prohibited, refusal for other non-justifiable reasons may still violate federal law. Conversely, stating that a physician is never relieved of duty is inaccurate, as legitimate unavailability may excuse performance under specific circumstances.
Legal and regulatory objectives emphasize compliance with EMTALA, proper on-call coverage policies, and documentation of availability. Therefore, the correct statement is that relief occurs only when the physician is unavailable due to circumstances outside their control.
NEW QUESTION # 60
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