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| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Physician Roles (CanMEDS Framework) | - Professional
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NEW QUESTION # 259
A 4-month-old girl is brought by a parent to your clinic with a history of recurrent vomiting since birth. She cries with feeding and has not gained weight in the last 2 weeks. Her hemoglobin level is 95 g/L (100-125).
The patient is currently being fed thickened hypoallergenic formula. Which one of the following is the most appropriate therapy?
Answer: E
Explanation:
This infant has persistent vomiting with feeding-associated distress and poor weight gain, despite appropriate initial nonpharmacologic measures (thickened feeds and hypoallergenic formula). MCCQE pediatrics objectives emphasize distinguishing physiologic reflux ("happy spitter") from gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), which is suggested by feeding aversion/crying and failure to thrive. When conservative strategies fail and GERD is causing significant symptoms or complications (e.g., poor growth, suspected esophagitis contributing to irritability and possibly anemia), escalation to acid suppression is appropriate; a proton pump inhibitor such as omeprazole is used to treat acid-related esophageal injury and improve symptoms in selected infants with suspected erosive disease.
Metoclopramide is not preferred due to limited benefit and risk of extrapyramidal adverse effects. Calcium carbonate antacids are not recommended as ongoing therapy in infants due to safety concerns and inferior efficacy for esophagitis. Bismuth sulfate is not indicated. Loperamide is inappropriate and potentially harmful in infants. Continued monitoring of growth and reassessment for alternative diagnoses or alarm features is essential.
NEW QUESTION # 260
A 34-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, comes to your office for prenatal care. Past medical history includes
2 precipitous uncomplicated term deliveries of infants greater than 4200 g. Which one of the following is she most at risk of developing?
Answer: B
Explanation:
This patient's obstetric history suggests recurrent fetal macrosomia (birthweight > 4000-4500 g) and rapid (precipitous) labours. MCCQE objectives emphasize identifying maternal risk factors for postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) , particularly those associated with uterine atony , the most common cause of PPH.
Delivery of a macrosomic infant increases uterine overdistension, which reduces effective postpartum uterine contraction and predisposes to atony and hemorrhage. In addition, precipitous labour can be associated with genital tract trauma, which can also contribute to postpartum bleeding, but the strongest and most consistent risk factor in the options provided is PPH from atony related to prior large infants.
The other choices are less supported by the stem: prior macrosomic term deliveries do not inherently increase risk of preterm delivery, gestational hypertension, or DVT. Therefore, the most likely risk to anticipate and plan for is postpartum hemorrhage, prompting proactive intrapartum planning (active management of the third stage, readiness with uterotonics, and risk-based monitoring).
NEW QUESTION # 261
An 18-month-old boy is brought to the office by his guardians for a well-child visit. His guardians are concerned that his eyes do not look the same. On examination, his eyes appear as shown in the referenced photo.
Which one of the following best represents the patient's condition?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The image shows an asymmetrical light reflex (corneal light reflex not centered in both eyes), which is diagnostic of strabismus. This misalignment of the eyes must be treated early to prevent amblyopia (lazy eye).
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, Ophthalmology:
"Strabismus presents with misaligned visual axes. The Hirschberg light reflex is off-center in the affected eye.
Prompt referral is necessary to prevent amblyopia."
MCCQE1 Objectives - Pediatrics > Vision and Developmental Disorders:
"Candidates must recognize strabismus on visual screening and refer early for correction to prevent permanent vision impairment." Pseudostrabismus (B) can be ruled out here because the light reflex is not symmetric. Ptosis (A) involves drooping of the eyelid, which is not evident. Cataracts (D) would typically present with a leukocoria (white reflex), not misalignment.
NEW QUESTION # 262
You are being consulted for a 79-year-old man who is about to undergo a total hip arthroplasty. His orthopedic surgeon is aware of the diagnosis of Alzheimer disease and would like your suggestions to help avoid acute postsurgical delirium. To that end, which one of the following is the most effective strategy?
Answer: A
Explanation:
One of the strongest modifiable risk factors for postoperative delirium in older adults is exposure to anticholinergic medications (e.g., diphenhydramine, certain antidepressants). Avoiding these can reduce delirium risk.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Geriatrics, "Delirium Prevention":
"Avoid high-risk medications including anticholinergics, benzodiazepines, and narcotics if possible. Maintain orientation cues and adequate pain control." MCCQE1 Objectives (Medicine > Geriatrics > 41-1: Cognitive Impairment):
"Candidates must recognize predisposing factors for delirium and apply prevention strategies, including medication review." Opiates (B) should be used judiciously; untreated pain can also cause delirium. Cognitive screening (C) is helpful for baseline but does not prevent delirium. Benzodiazepines (D) increase delirium risk. Family involvement is actually helpful (E).
NEW QUESTION # 263
A 71-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department with sudden onset of shortness of breath and chest pain. He was discharged from hospital 1 week ago after a total hip arthroplasty. On examination, his respiratory rate is 32/min. There is visible respiratory distress, and chest auscultation is clear. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Sudden onset dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain in a postoperative patient with tachypnea and clear lung fields are classic features of a pulmonary embolism (PE). Recent orthopedic surgery significantly increases VTE risk. Clear lungs on auscultation support this over pneumonia or CHF.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Respiratory, "Pulmonary Embolism":
"Presentation includes sudden dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and tachypnea. Risk factors include recent surgery and immobilization. Examination often reveals clear chest auscultation." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > Cardiopulmonary > 44-1):
"Candidates must recognize PE in patients with risk factors (e.g., surgery) and classic features and initiate appropriate diagnosis and management." Fat embolism (B) usually presents with petechiae, neurologic symptoms, and occurs within 24-72 hours post- op. Cholesterol emboli (E) are more chronic and systemic.
NEW QUESTION # 264
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