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| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Topic 1: Logging and Monitoring | 18% | - Monitoring and alerting
|
| Topic 2: Data Protection | 18% | - Data security services
|
| Topic 3: Infrastructure Security | 20% | - Network security
|
| Topic 4: Identity and Access Management | 16% | - AWS IAM fundamentals
|
| Topic 5: Management, Governance and Compliance | 14% | - Governance frameworks
|
| Topic 6: Threat Detection and Incident Response | 14% | - Detection mechanisms
|
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NEW QUESTION # 241
A security engineer has designed a VPC to segment private traffic from public traffic. The VPC includes two Availability Zones. The security engineer has provisioned each Availability Zone with one private subnet and one public subnet. The security engineer has created three route tables for use with the environment. One route table is for the public subnets, and two route tables are for the private subnets (one route table for the private subnet in each Availability Zone).
The security engineer discovers that all four subnets are attempting to route traffic out through the internet gateway that is attached to the VPC.
Which combination of steps should the security engineer take to remediate this scenario? (Select TWO.)
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
In a properly segmented VPC architecture,public subnets route internet-bound traffic to an internet gateway, whileprivate subnets route outbound internet traffic through a NAT gatewaythat resides in a public subnet.
According to the AWS Certified Security - Specialty Official Study Guide and Amazon VPC documentation, private subnets must never have a direct route to an internet gateway.
The issue described indicates that private subnets are incorrectly routing traffic directly to the internet gateway. To remediate this, aNAT gateway must be provisioned in each public subnetto ensure high availability across Availability Zones. This satisfies the requirement that private resources can initiate outbound connections without being directly reachable from the internet.
Next, the route tables associated with theprivate subnets must be updatedso that the default route (0.0.0.0/0) points to the NAT gateway in the same Availability Zone. This ensures proper traffic flow and prevents cross- AZ dependencies.
Option B is incorrect because NAT gateways must reside in public subnets. Option C is unnecessary because local routes to the VPC CIDR range are automatically created. Option E is explicitly insecure, as it would reintroduce direct internet gateway access from private subnets.
AWS documentation consistently identifiesNAT gateways plus correct private subnet routingas the standard design for secure VPC segmentation.
* AWS Certified Security - Specialty Official Study Guide
* Amazon VPC Route Table Documentation
* AWS Well-Architected Framework - Security Pillar
NEW QUESTION # 242
A security engineer has designed a VPC to segment private traffic from public traffic. The VPC includes two Availability Zones. Each Availability Zone contains one public subnet and one private subnet. Three route tables exist: one for the public subnets and one for each private subnet.
The security engineer discovers that all four subnets are routing traffic through the internet gateway that is attached to the VPC.
Which combination of steps should the security engineer take to remediate this scenario? (Select TWO.)
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
AWS networking best practices require private subnets to access the internet only through NAT gateways located in public subnets. According to the AWS Certified Security - Specialty Study Guide, NAT gateways must be provisioned in public subnets and used as the default route for outbound traffic from private subnets.
Verifying NAT gateways in each Availability Zone ensures high availability and fault tolerance.
Updating the private subnet route tables to send 0.0.0.0/0 traffic to the NAT gateway prevents direct internet access while allowing outbound connectivity.
Routing private subnet traffic directly to an internet gateway violates subnet isolation principles.
NAT gateways must never be placed in private subnets.
NEW QUESTION # 243
A company uses infrastructure as code (IaC) to create AWS infrastructure. The company writes the code as AWS CloudFormation templates to deploy the infrastructure. The company has an existing CI/CD pipeline that the company can use to deploy these templates.
After a recent security audit, the company decides to adopt a policy-as-code approach to improve the company's security posture on AWS. The company must prevent the deployment of any infrastructure that would violate a security policy, such as an unencrypted Amazon EBS volume.
Which solution will meet these requirements?
Answer: C
Explanation:
AWS CloudFormation Guard is the correct policy-as-code control for validating CloudFormation templates before deployment. Guard lets security teams write rules that check JSON or YAML templates for policy requirements, such as requiring encrypted EBS volumes. AWS CloudFormation best practices specifically recommend integrating cfn-guard into CI/CD pipelines to validate templates before deployment and prevent noncompliant resources from reaching the environment. AWS Config is mainly detective or proactive compliance evaluation after or during resource provisioning, but the question asks to prevent deployment inside an IaC pipeline.
Trusted Advisor does not validate templates. SCPs restrict account-level permissions but are not a CloudFormation template validation engine.
NEW QUESTION # 244
A company allows users to download its mobile app onto their phones. The app is MQTT based and connects to AWS IoT Core to subscribe to specific client-related topics. Recently, the company discovered that some malicious attackers have been trying to get a Trojan horse onto legitimate mobile phones. The Trojan horse poses as the authentic application and uses a client ID with injected special characters to gain access to topics outside the client's privilege scope.
Which combination of actions should the company take to prevent this threat? (Choose two.)
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
The threat is client ID manipulation to break authorization boundaries. The strongest control is tobind the MQTT client identity to the authenticated device identity(the Thing) rather than trusting arbitrary client IDs provided by the client. Using theThing name as the client ID(Option A) removes ambiguity and makes the identifier predictable and tied to a registered identity.
On the authorization side, AWS IoT Core policies can use policy variables. Allowing iot:Connect only when the resource matches client/${iot:Connection.Thing.ThingName} (Option E) ensures the connection is permittedonlyif the client ID exactly equals the authenticated Thing name from the TLS certificate/Thing principal context. This prevents attackers from injecting special characters or choosing a different client ID to escalate access, because the policy evaluation ties the allowed client resource to the Thing identity, not the attacker-controlled string.
NEW QUESTION # 245
A company uses AWS to run a web application that manages ticket sales in several countries. The company recently migrated the application to an architecture that includes Amazon API Gateway, AWS Lambda, and Amazon Aurora Serverless. The company needs the application to comply with Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS) v4.0. A security engineer must generate a report that shows the effectiveness of the PCI DSS v4.0 controls that apply to the application. The company's compliance team must be able to add manual evidence to the report.
Which solution will meet these requirements?
Answer: C
Explanation:
AWS Audit Manager is specifically designed to help organizations continuously audit their AWS usage against compliance frameworks and generate audit-ready reports. According to AWS Certified Security - Specialty documentation, Audit Manager includes AWS managed frameworks for compliance standards, including PCI DSS v4.0.
Audit Manager automatically collects evidence from AWS services such as API Gateway, Lambda, RDS, CloudTrail, and Config, and maps the evidence directly to PCI DSS controls. Importantly, Audit Manager allows compliance teams to upload and attach manual evidence, which is a key requirement in this scenario.
Option C provides visibility into control status but does not support adding manual evidence. Option B evaluates configuration compliance but does not generate formal compliance reports. Option A requires extensive manual effort and is not aligned with PCI reporting workflows.
AWS documentation positions Audit Manager as the authoritative service for compliance reporting and audit evidence management.
Referenced AWS Specialty Documents:
AWS Certified Security - Specialty Official Study Guide
AWS Audit Manager PCI DSS Framework
AWS Compliance Reporting Best Practices
NEW QUESTION # 246
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